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2023 Ortho Questions

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  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 86
    1. Question


    A 25-year-old male presents to your office with left smaller finger pain and deformity after a fall 2 days ago. He is unable to extend the distal part of his small finger. On physical exam he has a flexed distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint to the 5th digit. AP and lateral x-rays of the left small finger (figures 1 and 2) show a bony mallet finger. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    A mallet finger is caused by loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint due to an extensor tendon disruption or bony avulsion off the dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx. Loss of extension at the DIP causes the flexor digitorum profundus tendon to pull the DIP joint into a flexion deformity. Bony avulsion fractures are stable if there is no subluxation of the distal phalanx, less than 50% of the joint surface is involved, and < 2-3 mm of displacement. Treatment of acute mallet injuries (<4 weeks old) involves keeping the DIP joint in an extension splint for 6-8 weeks. Dorsal or volar based splints can both be used as studies have shown no greater extension lag deformity with using one or the another. It is common for the DIP joint to have some permanent flexion of less than 10-20 degrees after treatment, however greater than 25 degrees is considered a poor outcome. 1,2

    Answer B.
    References
    1. Alla SR, Deal ND, Dempsey IJ. Current concepts: mallet finger. Hand. 2014 Jun;9(2):138-44.
    2. Pike J, Mulpuri K, Metzger M, Ng G, Wells N, Goetz T. Blinded, prospective, randomized clinical trial comparing volar, dorsal, and custom thermoplastic splinting in treatment of acute mallet finger. The Journal of hand surgery. 2010 Apr 1;35(4):580-8.

    Incorrect

    A mallet finger is caused by loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint due to an extensor tendon disruption or bony avulsion off the dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx. Loss of extension at the DIP causes the flexor digitorum profundus tendon to pull the DIP joint into a flexion deformity. Bony avulsion fractures are stable if there is no subluxation of the distal phalanx, less than 50% of the joint surface is involved, and < 2-3 mm of displacement. Treatment of acute mallet injuries (<4 weeks old) involves keeping the DIP joint in an extension splint for 6-8 weeks. Dorsal or volar based splints can both be used as studies have shown no greater extension lag deformity with using one or the another. It is common for the DIP joint to have some permanent flexion of less than 10-20 degrees after treatment, however greater than 25 degrees is considered a poor outcome. 1,2

    Answer B.
    References
    1. Alla SR, Deal ND, Dempsey IJ. Current concepts: mallet finger. Hand. 2014 Jun;9(2):138-44.
    2. Pike J, Mulpuri K, Metzger M, Ng G, Wells N, Goetz T. Blinded, prospective, randomized clinical trial comparing volar, dorsal, and custom thermoplastic splinting in treatment of acute mallet finger. The Journal of hand surgery. 2010 Apr 1;35(4):580-8.

  2. Question 2 of 86
    2. Question


    A 40 year male presents to your office with severe right foot pain after tripping at his home 2 days ago. He admits the ankle rolled as he tripped and he felt a sharp pain in the foot during the fall. Over the last few days the foot has become very swollen and bruised on the lateral side. He is having difficulty bearing weight but denies numbness or tingling. AP x-rays of the foot (figures 1 and 2) show an avulsion fracture of the dorsolateral aspect of the calcaneus. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Avulsion fractures are common after foot and ankle inversion/eversion injuries. Identifying attachment sites of tendons and ligaments of the foot and ankle helps guide identifying particular avulsion patterns. One of the most common avulsion fractures of the calcaneus is an avulsion of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle off the dorsolateral aspect of the calcaneus. These injuries occur from an inversion ankle injury such as a fall upstairs or a slip on ice. The extensor digitorum brevis is the only muscle that originates on the dorsum of the foot and functions to extend the 4 medial toes. Other avulsion fractures of the calcaneus include an anterior process fracture (due to avulsion of the bifurcate ligament) Achilles, and plantar fascia. Most avulsion fractures heal uneventfully with a period of immobilization, usually in a weightbearing boot for 4-6 weeks. If pain from the avulsion fracture persists beyond 4-6 months excision of the avulsed fragment may be considered. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Norfray JF, Rogers LF, Adamo GP, Groves HC, Heiser WJ. Common calcaneal avulsion fracture. AJR Am J Roentgenol. 1980 Jan 1;134(1):119-23.
    2. Halm JA, Schepers T. Resection of small avulsion fractures of the anterior process of the calcaneus for refractory complaints. The Journal of Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2017 Jan 1;56(1):135-41.

    Incorrect

    Avulsion fractures are common after foot and ankle inversion/eversion injuries. Identifying attachment sites of tendons and ligaments of the foot and ankle helps guide identifying particular avulsion patterns. One of the most common avulsion fractures of the calcaneus is an avulsion of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle off the dorsolateral aspect of the calcaneus. These injuries occur from an inversion ankle injury such as a fall upstairs or a slip on ice. The extensor digitorum brevis is the only muscle that originates on the dorsum of the foot and functions to extend the 4 medial toes. Other avulsion fractures of the calcaneus include an anterior process fracture (due to avulsion of the bifurcate ligament) Achilles, and plantar fascia. Most avulsion fractures heal uneventfully with a period of immobilization, usually in a weightbearing boot for 4-6 weeks. If pain from the avulsion fracture persists beyond 4-6 months excision of the avulsed fragment may be considered. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Norfray JF, Rogers LF, Adamo GP, Groves HC, Heiser WJ. Common calcaneal avulsion fracture. AJR Am J Roentgenol. 1980 Jan 1;134(1):119-23.
    2. Halm JA, Schepers T. Resection of small avulsion fractures of the anterior process of the calcaneus for refractory complaints. The Journal of Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2017 Jan 1;56(1):135-41.

  3. Question 3 of 86
    3. Question


    A 34-year-old male presents to your office 3 months out from being treated for a mallet finger to his right 3rd finger. Lateral x-ray of the finger at the time of injury is shown in figure 1. He was treated with an extension splint for 6 weeks followed by a night time splinting for an additional two weeks. When he took the splint off full time last month the deformity returned. He is now unable to extend the distal phalanx. He now has an approximately 45 degree flexion deformity to the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) joint (picture of the deformity in figure 2). What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    A mallet finger is a disruption of the terminal extensor tendon at its attachment site on the dorsal distal phalanx. The extensor tendon can avulse a piece of bone off (bony mallet) or be purely a soft tissue avulsion. The injury occurs as a result of a sudden forced flexion to the DIP joint. Treatment of acute injuries includes extension splinting of the DIP joint for 6-8 weeks. Residual extensor lag <20 degrees or less after treatment is considered a satisfactory outcome. Mallet fingers presenting 4 weeks after injury (from either benign neglect or failed treatment) are considered to be a chronic injury. Extension splinting is recommended for treating chronic injuries with a similar success rate to treatment of acute injuries. Surgical repair is reserved after failure of nonoperative treatment. A complication of a mallet deformity may include the formation of a swan neck deformity due to the compensatory hyperextension at the PIP joint. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Bendre, Anup A. MD; Hartigan, Brian J. MD; Kalainov, David M. MD. Mallet Finger. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(5):p 336-344, September 2005.
    2. Okafor B, Mbubaegbu C, Munshi I, Williams DJ. Mallet deformity of the finger: five-year follow-up of conservative treatment. The Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery. British volume. 1997 Jul;79(4):544-7.

    Incorrect

    A mallet finger is a disruption of the terminal extensor tendon at its attachment site on the dorsal distal phalanx. The extensor tendon can avulse a piece of bone off (bony mallet) or be purely a soft tissue avulsion. The injury occurs as a result of a sudden forced flexion to the DIP joint. Treatment of acute injuries includes extension splinting of the DIP joint for 6-8 weeks. Residual extensor lag <20 degrees or less after treatment is considered a satisfactory outcome. Mallet fingers presenting 4 weeks after injury (from either benign neglect or failed treatment) are considered to be a chronic injury. Extension splinting is recommended for treating chronic injuries with a similar success rate to treatment of acute injuries. Surgical repair is reserved after failure of nonoperative treatment. A complication of a mallet deformity may include the formation of a swan neck deformity due to the compensatory hyperextension at the PIP joint. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Bendre, Anup A. MD; Hartigan, Brian J. MD; Kalainov, David M. MD. Mallet Finger. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(5):p 336-344, September 2005.
    2. Okafor B, Mbubaegbu C, Munshi I, Williams DJ. Mallet deformity of the finger: five-year follow-up of conservative treatment. The Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery. British volume. 1997 Jul;79(4):544-7.

  4. Question 4 of 86
    4. Question


    A 60 year old female presents to your office with right wrist and hand pain for a year or more. The pain at night has become worse and she has noticed muscle atrophy in her palm the past 6 months. The pain seems to start at the palm and can radiate to the thumb, index and ring fingers. She has tried using a night splint which she uses sporadically, and it doesn’t seem to help. On physical exam the patient has obvious thenar atrophy compared to the left hand (figure 1) and weakness with thumb abduction. Which statement is true regarding carpal tunnel release surgery for this patient?

    Correct

    Thenar eminence atrophy is a classic physical exam finding of chronic carpal tunnel syndrome. Thenar atrophy is a sign of severe and prolonged medial nerve compression and itself is an indication for surgical carpel tunnel release. Although the most common cause of thenar atrophy is carpel tunnel syndrome, C8/T1 radiculopathy and median neuropathy (in the arm) can also be a cause. Carpal tunnel syndrome is diagnosed by multiple factors including clinical picture, physical exam findings (carpal compression test, positive Tinel’s, Prayer and Phalen signs), and with electrodiagnostic testing. Patients with thenar atrophy who undergo a carpal tunnel release can expect significant improvement in hand strength all the way up to 6 months postop, along with improvement in thenar atrophy. Fernandes et al found a 21 % improvement in grip strength and a 30 % increase in tip pinch strength 6 months postop after carpal tunnel release. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Fernandes CH, Meirelles LM, Raduan Neto J, Nakachima LR, Dos Santos JB, Faloppa F. Carpal tunnel syndrome with thenar atrophy: evaluation of the pinch and grip strength in patients undergoing surgical treatment. Hand. 2013 Mar;8:60-3.
    2. Hoppe B, LeVan D. Hand Atrophy. JBJS JOPA, 9(1):e20.00022 | Review Articles | January 26, 2021

    Incorrect

    Thenar eminence atrophy is a classic physical exam finding of chronic carpal tunnel syndrome. Thenar atrophy is a sign of severe and prolonged medial nerve compression and itself is an indication for surgical carpel tunnel release. Although the most common cause of thenar atrophy is carpel tunnel syndrome, C8/T1 radiculopathy and median neuropathy (in the arm) can also be a cause. Carpal tunnel syndrome is diagnosed by multiple factors including clinical picture, physical exam findings (carpal compression test, positive Tinel’s, Prayer and Phalen signs), and with electrodiagnostic testing. Patients with thenar atrophy who undergo a carpal tunnel release can expect significant improvement in hand strength all the way up to 6 months postop, along with improvement in thenar atrophy. Fernandes et al found a 21 % improvement in grip strength and a 30 % increase in tip pinch strength 6 months postop after carpal tunnel release. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Fernandes CH, Meirelles LM, Raduan Neto J, Nakachima LR, Dos Santos JB, Faloppa F. Carpal tunnel syndrome with thenar atrophy: evaluation of the pinch and grip strength in patients undergoing surgical treatment. Hand. 2013 Mar;8:60-3.
    2. Hoppe B, LeVan D. Hand Atrophy. JBJS JOPA, 9(1):e20.00022 | Review Articles | January 26, 2021

  5. Question 5 of 86
    5. Question


    A 28 year old female presents to your office with inability to extend her right thumb since yesterday. She was recently treated for a nondisplaced distal radius fracture in a short arm cast for 4 weeks and was transitioned to a removable splint over the last week. AP and lateral x-rays of the fracture are shown in figures 1 and 2. She noticed when she was grabbing an object yesterday, she felt a pop in her thumb and lost the ability to extend the tip of her thumb after. On physical exam she cannot actively extend her interphalangeal joint of her right thumb. She has difficulty with abduction of the thumb as well. She is otherwise neurologically intact. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    One infrequent, but not to be missed complication of a distal radius fracture is an extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture. The classic presentation is a patient presenting with inability to extend the thumb during or just after treatment of a nondisplaced distal radius fracture. The incidence can vary from 0.2% to 4% of all distal radius fractures and most occur with minimally displaced to non-displaced types. Multiple etiologies have been proposed to explain the rupture, including laceration of the tendon on a spike of bone, a disturbed blood supply to the tendon due to local swelling, and from local adhesions. Tendon rupture occurs on average at 9 weeks after the initial injury (range 3-16 weeks) when treated nonoperatively. Treatment of the tendon rupture includes surgical repair with an extensor indicis proprius to extensor pollicis longus tendon transfer with the goal of restoring thumb extension. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Roth KM, Blazar PE, Earp BE, Han R, Leung A. Incidence of extensor pollicis longus tendon rupture after nondisplaced distal radius fractures. The Journal of hand surgery. 2012 May 1;37(5):942-7.
    2. White BD, Nydick JA, Karsky D, Williams BD, Hess AV, Stone JD. Incidence and clinical outcomes of tendon rupture following distal radius fracture. The Journal of hand surgery. 2012 Oct 1;37(10):2035-40.

    Incorrect

    One infrequent, but not to be missed complication of a distal radius fracture is an extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture. The classic presentation is a patient presenting with inability to extend the thumb during or just after treatment of a nondisplaced distal radius fracture. The incidence can vary from 0.2% to 4% of all distal radius fractures and most occur with minimally displaced to non-displaced types. Multiple etiologies have been proposed to explain the rupture, including laceration of the tendon on a spike of bone, a disturbed blood supply to the tendon due to local swelling, and from local adhesions. Tendon rupture occurs on average at 9 weeks after the initial injury (range 3-16 weeks) when treated nonoperatively. Treatment of the tendon rupture includes surgical repair with an extensor indicis proprius to extensor pollicis longus tendon transfer with the goal of restoring thumb extension. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Roth KM, Blazar PE, Earp BE, Han R, Leung A. Incidence of extensor pollicis longus tendon rupture after nondisplaced distal radius fractures. The Journal of hand surgery. 2012 May 1;37(5):942-7.
    2. White BD, Nydick JA, Karsky D, Williams BD, Hess AV, Stone JD. Incidence and clinical outcomes of tendon rupture following distal radius fracture. The Journal of hand surgery. 2012 Oct 1;37(10):2035-40.

  6. Question 6 of 86
    6. Question


    A 58 year old female presents to the office with complaints of a pea-sized mass on the thumb side of her left wrist. She does a lot of knitting and has noticed some mild pain to that side of her wrist over the last few months. The mass has been there for about a month and persists despite trying a 3-4 week period of thumb immobilization in a brace. On physical exam she has a pea sized ganglion cyst that appears to be on the extensor pollicis brevis tendon. The cyst moves with extension and flexion of the thumb. A picture of the mass is shown in figure 1. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    A ganglion cyst is the most common tumor of the hand and is 3 times more likely to occur in women compared to men. Ganglion cysts can occur on tendons by adhering to the outside of the tendon without affecting function. A flexor tendon sheath ganglion can be diagnosed by the presence of a small mass that moves with the tendon. Aspiration of clear gelatinous fluid helps confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes in the differential such as a giant cell tumor and infection. MRI and x-ray are not indicated when a flexor tendon ganglion cyst is clinically diagnosed. Observation is first recommended in most cases as the cyst will likely resolve with time. This patient has trialed a period of immobilization however, and an aspiration is the most appropriate next step. Aspiration with or without steroid injection can be performed if the cyst fails to resolve. Patients should be warned that skin depigmentation and atrophy can occur with a steroid injection. A single aspiration has a high likelihood of recurrence, while surgical excision is often successful for complete resolution. Surgical excision comes with a higher risk of potential complications (infection, wound healing issues) so an aspiration is recommended before surgery is considered. 1,2
    Answer B.
    Resources
    1. Thornburg, Lacy E. MD. Ganglions of the Hand and Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: July 1999 – Volume 7 – Issue 4 – p 231-238
    2. Jebson PJ, Spencer Jr EE. Flexor tendon sheath ganglions: results of surgical excision. Hand. 2007 Sep;2(3):94-100.

    Incorrect

    A ganglion cyst is the most common tumor of the hand and is 3 times more likely to occur in women compared to men. Ganglion cysts can occur on tendons by adhering to the outside of the tendon without affecting function. A flexor tendon sheath ganglion can be diagnosed by the presence of a small mass that moves with the tendon. Aspiration of clear gelatinous fluid helps confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes in the differential such as a giant cell tumor and infection. MRI and x-ray are not indicated when a flexor tendon ganglion cyst is clinically diagnosed. Observation is first recommended in most cases as the cyst will likely resolve with time. This patient has trialed a period of immobilization however, and an aspiration is the most appropriate next step. Aspiration with or without steroid injection can be performed if the cyst fails to resolve. Patients should be warned that skin depigmentation and atrophy can occur with a steroid injection. A single aspiration has a high likelihood of recurrence, while surgical excision is often successful for complete resolution. Surgical excision comes with a higher risk of potential complications (infection, wound healing issues) so an aspiration is recommended before surgery is considered. 1,2
    Answer B.
    Resources
    1. Thornburg, Lacy E. MD. Ganglions of the Hand and Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: July 1999 – Volume 7 – Issue 4 – p 231-238
    2. Jebson PJ, Spencer Jr EE. Flexor tendon sheath ganglions: results of surgical excision. Hand. 2007 Sep;2(3):94-100.

  7. Question 7 of 86
    7. Question


    A 16 year-old male presents to your office after sustaining a laceration to his left ring finger. He was carrying a toilet when it broke in his hand. He sustained a laceration along the volar surface of the left ring finger. He can no longer bend the tip of his finger and has some numbness and tingling to the tip. On physical exam he has an L-shaped laceration over the volar aspect of the ring finger (figure 1). He has very limited flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and no active flexion of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Two-point discrimination distal to the laceration is greater than 10 mm on the radial boarder and 8 mm on the ulnar boarder. What is the recommended treatment option?

    Correct

    Each finger has a digital nerve that runs on both the radial and ulnar boarders, supplying sensation to their respective sides. Digital nerves provide discriminatory sensation which is critical for hand function and dexterity. Digital nerve injuries are often missed as clinicians often fail to perform simple tests required to make the diagnosis. Nerve injuries treated with surgical repair do better if treated early so making the diagnosis is critical. Two point discrimination of the finger is often used to determine if a digital nerve has been injured and requires repair. The American Society for Surgery of the Hand (ASSH) recommended values for two point discrimination (2PD) includes <6 mm is counted as normal, 6–10 mm as fair, 11–15 mm as poor, and >15 mm as protective. Digital 2PD >6mm is highly predictive of a digital nerve injury. Microsurgical repair is performed within the first several days of injury to provide for optimal nerve regeneration. 1,2
    The patient has 2PD over 6 mm on both sides of his ring finger indicating a likely laceration through both digital nerves. He is also unable to flex his DIP indicating a likely FDP tendon laceration but can flex his IP joint indicating an intact FDS tendon. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Boesch CE, Medved F, Held M, Bender D, Schaller HE, Fuchsberger T. Analysis of the two-point discrimination test in daily routine practice. European Journal of Plastic Surgery. 2017 Aug;40(4):333-6.
    2. Mermans JF, Franssen BB, Serroyen J, Van der Hulst RR. Digital nerve injuries: a review of predictors of sensory recovery after microsurgical digital nerve repair. Hand (N Y). 2012 Sep;7(3):233-41.

    Incorrect

    Each finger has a digital nerve that runs on both the radial and ulnar boarders, supplying sensation to their respective sides. Digital nerves provide discriminatory sensation which is critical for hand function and dexterity. Digital nerve injuries are often missed as clinicians often fail to perform simple tests required to make the diagnosis. Nerve injuries treated with surgical repair do better if treated early so making the diagnosis is critical. Two point discrimination of the finger is often used to determine if a digital nerve has been injured and requires repair. The American Society for Surgery of the Hand (ASSH) recommended values for two point discrimination (2PD) includes <6 mm is counted as normal, 6–10 mm as fair, 11–15 mm as poor, and >15 mm as protective. Digital 2PD >6mm is highly predictive of a digital nerve injury. Microsurgical repair is performed within the first several days of injury to provide for optimal nerve regeneration. 1,2
    The patient has 2PD over 6 mm on both sides of his ring finger indicating a likely laceration through both digital nerves. He is also unable to flex his DIP indicating a likely FDP tendon laceration but can flex his IP joint indicating an intact FDS tendon. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Boesch CE, Medved F, Held M, Bender D, Schaller HE, Fuchsberger T. Analysis of the two-point discrimination test in daily routine practice. European Journal of Plastic Surgery. 2017 Aug;40(4):333-6.
    2. Mermans JF, Franssen BB, Serroyen J, Van der Hulst RR. Digital nerve injuries: a review of predictors of sensory recovery after microsurgical digital nerve repair. Hand (N Y). 2012 Sep;7(3):233-41.

  8. Question 8 of 86
    8. Question


    A 25 year old male presents to the office with right foot pain after stepping on a pencil tip one week ago. The pencil tip pierced his second toe in a plantar to dorsal direction. He had some erythema 2 days later and was placed on doxycycline. The erythema and pain has improved since and he presents with concerns about the retained foreign body which he believes is the graphite tip of the pencil he stepped on. AP and lateral x-rays of the second toe confirm what appears to be a pencil tip lodged in the soft tissues of the medial second toe. Which choice below is the best indication for foreign body removal?

    Correct

    Incorrect

  9. Question 9 of 86
    9. Question

    A 44-year-old male presents to the office with left shoulder pain after a fall 2 weeks ago. He tried to catch himself with the left arm and felt a pop when his arm hit the ground. He was seen in the emergency room where x-rays questioned a glenoid fracture (AP x-ray in figure 1). On physical exam of the right shoulder he has tenderness to palpation over the anterior glenoid and difficulty with any active motion. Coronal and sagittal CT images (figures 2 and 3) show an anterior-inferior glenoid fracture with 6 mm of anterior-inferior displacement and loss of over 30% the glenoid surface area. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Glenoid fractures can occur as a result of a traumatic shoulder dislocation (rim fractures) or fall that impacts the humeral head against the glenoid (glenoid fossa fracture). The small surface area of the glenoid compared to the large radius of the humeral head allows the shoulder joint the most range of motion of any joint in the body. Grashey AP and axillary x-rays are the best views to see obvious glenoid fractures. However, a CT scan is often necessary to determine the amount of displacement, or to confirm subtle fractures. Most glenoid fractures have minimal displacement and can be treated non-operatively. Generally intra-articular fractures with <4mm of displacement and involving less than 25% of the glenoid can be treated with shoulder immobilization. Young athletes with bone loss to the glenoid are at the highest risk of recurrent instability and are more likely to require surgery. Glenoid fractures with significant displacement and involving >25% of the glenoid are generally treated with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Seidl, Adam J. MD; Joyce, Christopher D. MD Acute Fractures of the Glenoid, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: November 15, 2020 – Volume 28 – Issue 22 – p e978-e987
    2. Van Oostveen DP, Temmerman OP, Burger BJ, Van Noort A, Robinson M. Glenoid fractures: a review of pathology, classification, treatment and results. Acta Orthop Belg. 2014 Mar 1;80(1):88-98.

    Incorrect

    Glenoid fractures can occur as a result of a traumatic shoulder dislocation (rim fractures) or fall that impacts the humeral head against the glenoid (glenoid fossa fracture). The small surface area of the glenoid compared to the large radius of the humeral head allows the shoulder joint the most range of motion of any joint in the body. Grashey AP and axillary x-rays are the best views to see obvious glenoid fractures. However, a CT scan is often necessary to determine the amount of displacement, or to confirm subtle fractures. Most glenoid fractures have minimal displacement and can be treated non-operatively. Generally intra-articular fractures with <4mm of displacement and involving less than 25% of the glenoid can be treated with shoulder immobilization. Young athletes with bone loss to the glenoid are at the highest risk of recurrent instability and are more likely to require surgery. Glenoid fractures with significant displacement and involving >25% of the glenoid are generally treated with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Seidl, Adam J. MD; Joyce, Christopher D. MD Acute Fractures of the Glenoid, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: November 15, 2020 – Volume 28 – Issue 22 – p e978-e987
    2. Van Oostveen DP, Temmerman OP, Burger BJ, Van Noort A, Robinson M. Glenoid fractures: a review of pathology, classification, treatment and results. Acta Orthop Belg. 2014 Mar 1;80(1):88-98.

  10. Question 10 of 86
    10. Question


    A 33-year-old male presents to the office with left knee pain for 3 weeks. He was sprinting when he had a non-contact twisting injury to the knee. At the time he felt a pop at the medial aspect of the knee and the area began to swell over the next few days after the injury. He has had ongoing medial sided knee pain that worsens with twisting, squatting and kneeling. MRI of the left knee (figures 1 and 2) demonstrate a distal semitendinosus tendon avulsion with proximal retraction. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Hamstring injuries are common and generally involve proximal muscle tears or tendon avulsions off the ischial tuberosity. Distal hamstring tears and tendon avulsions are far less common. The hamstring muscles include the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris (which has a long and short head). The distal biceps femoris tendon attaches to the lateral aspect of the knee and is the most common distal hamstring injury, typically associated with a varus hyperextension injury. Semitendinosus injuries occur off the attachment side over the medial knee (at the Pes anserine). The most common exam findings with a semitendinosus injury include pain with knee extension, swelling on the medial knee, and tenderness over the Pes anserine. MRI is the study of choice to identify these injuries. Treatment of these injuries is controversial as they are rarely seen. Given the fact that the semitendinosus is harvested for ACL autografts with little to no clinically significant loss in hamstring strength after, the thought that non-operative treatment is a successful option for avulsion injuries is reasonable. Sekhon et al treated two professional athletes successfully with non-operative treatment and a rapid return to sports (within 1-4 weeks). Adejuwon et al found that full recovery from a semitendinosus avulsion injury was achieved in two elite adult sprinters with non-operative treatment. Full recovery with return to pre-injury level of play occurred at 12 months. Conversely, Cooper et al. found that elite athletes returned to sport sooner when undergoing surgical repair within 4 weeks of injury compared to non-operative treatment. The authors criteria for acute surgical repair include elite athletes who desired an earlier return to play, patients who failed to progress with a non-operative rehabilitation program, and continued knee extension pain. Surgical excision of the semitendinosus tendon is also a reasonable option if patients have continued medial sided knee pain. 1,2,3
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Adejuwon A, McCourt P, Hamilton B, Haddad F. Distal semitendinosus tendon rupture: is there any benefit of surgical intervention?. Clinical Journal of Sport Medicine. 2009 Nov 1;19(6):502-4.
    2. Sekhon JS, Anderson K. Rupture of the distal semitendinosus tendon–A report of two cases in professional Athletes. The Journal of Knee Surgery. 2007;20(02):147-50.

    Incorrect

    Hamstring injuries are common and generally involve proximal muscle tears or tendon avulsions off the ischial tuberosity. Distal hamstring tears and tendon avulsions are far less common. The hamstring muscles include the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris (which has a long and short head). The distal biceps femoris tendon attaches to the lateral aspect of the knee and is the most common distal hamstring injury, typically associated with a varus hyperextension injury. Semitendinosus injuries occur off the attachment side over the medial knee (at the Pes anserine). The most common exam findings with a semitendinosus injury include pain with knee extension, swelling on the medial knee, and tenderness over the Pes anserine. MRI is the study of choice to identify these injuries. Treatment of these injuries is controversial as they are rarely seen. Given the fact that the semitendinosus is harvested for ACL autografts with little to no clinically significant loss in hamstring strength after, the thought that non-operative treatment is a successful option for avulsion injuries is reasonable. Sekhon et al treated two professional athletes successfully with non-operative treatment and a rapid return to sports (within 1-4 weeks). Adejuwon et al found that full recovery from a semitendinosus avulsion injury was achieved in two elite adult sprinters with non-operative treatment. Full recovery with return to pre-injury level of play occurred at 12 months. Conversely, Cooper et al. found that elite athletes returned to sport sooner when undergoing surgical repair within 4 weeks of injury compared to non-operative treatment. The authors criteria for acute surgical repair include elite athletes who desired an earlier return to play, patients who failed to progress with a non-operative rehabilitation program, and continued knee extension pain. Surgical excision of the semitendinosus tendon is also a reasonable option if patients have continued medial sided knee pain. 1,2,3
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Adejuwon A, McCourt P, Hamilton B, Haddad F. Distal semitendinosus tendon rupture: is there any benefit of surgical intervention?. Clinical Journal of Sport Medicine. 2009 Nov 1;19(6):502-4.
    2. Sekhon JS, Anderson K. Rupture of the distal semitendinosus tendon–A report of two cases in professional Athletes. The Journal of Knee Surgery. 2007;20(02):147-50.

  11. Question 11 of 86
    11. Question


    A 70-year-old female presents to your office with several months of left middle finger pain. She noticed increased swelling over the end of her finger and pain when she does her knitting. A picture of her left middle finger is shown in figure 1. AP and lateral x-rays of the middle finger are shown in figures 2 and 3. She is wondering if a surgical option is available to help relieve the pain as ice and oral anti-inflammatories are no longer effective. What is the most commonly performed surgical procedure for this condition?

    Correct

    Primary arthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) and proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) is a common condition presenting with pain and stiffness of the digits. Heberden’s node at the DIP and Bouchard’s node at the PIP is associated with enlargement of the joints due to arthritis. The patient presents with a Heberden’s node and severe arthritis at the DIP joint. Mucous cysts are fluid filled pea size cysts that commonly grow from an arthritic DIP joint. Mucous cysts are fluid filled and soft whereas Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes are a generalized enlargement of the joint. Radiographic findings of finger arthritis include joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation. Treatment is almost always conservative to include ice, oral or topical anti-inflammatories, and splinting. Night time extension splitting has been shown to reduce pain and extension lag from DIP arthritis. Symptoms of finger arthritis are generally mild and intermittent and less commonly severe and unrelenting. In rare cases when the finger arthritis causes severe pain and disability, surgery may be an option. DIP joint arthritis is often treated with fusion. Mucous cysts alone can be treated with mucoid cyst excision with osteophyte resection. Arthritis of the PIP joint can be treated surgically with osteophyte excision, fusion, or arthroplasty. 1,2
    Answer C

    References
    1. Spies CK, Langer M, Hahn P, Müller LP, Unglaub F. The treatment of primary arthritis of the finger and thumb joint. Deutsches Ärzteblatt International. 2018 Apr;115(16):269.
    2. Watt FE, Kennedy DL, Carlisle KE, Freidin AJ, Szydlo RM, Honeyfield L, Satchithananda K, Vincent TL. Night-time immobilization of the distal interphalangeal joint reduces pain and extension deformity in hand osteoarthritis. Rheumatology (Oxford). 2014 Jun;53(6):1142-9.

    Incorrect

    Primary arthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) and proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) is a common condition presenting with pain and stiffness of the digits. Heberden’s node at the DIP and Bouchard’s node at the PIP is associated with enlargement of the joints due to arthritis. The patient presents with a Heberden’s node and severe arthritis at the DIP joint. Mucous cysts are fluid filled pea size cysts that commonly grow from an arthritic DIP joint. Mucous cysts are fluid filled and soft whereas Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes are a generalized enlargement of the joint. Radiographic findings of finger arthritis include joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation. Treatment is almost always conservative to include ice, oral or topical anti-inflammatories, and splinting. Night time extension splitting has been shown to reduce pain and extension lag from DIP arthritis. Symptoms of finger arthritis are generally mild and intermittent and less commonly severe and unrelenting. In rare cases when the finger arthritis causes severe pain and disability, surgery may be an option. DIP joint arthritis is often treated with fusion. Mucous cysts alone can be treated with mucoid cyst excision with osteophyte resection. Arthritis of the PIP joint can be treated surgically with osteophyte excision, fusion, or arthroplasty. 1,2
    Answer C

    References
    1. Spies CK, Langer M, Hahn P, Müller LP, Unglaub F. The treatment of primary arthritis of the finger and thumb joint. Deutsches Ärzteblatt International. 2018 Apr;115(16):269.
    2. Watt FE, Kennedy DL, Carlisle KE, Freidin AJ, Szydlo RM, Honeyfield L, Satchithananda K, Vincent TL. Night-time immobilization of the distal interphalangeal joint reduces pain and extension deformity in hand osteoarthritis. Rheumatology (Oxford). 2014 Jun;53(6):1142-9.

  12. Question 12 of 86
    12. Question


    A 33 year old male presents to the emergency room with left arm pain after a motorcycle accident 2 hours earlier. He lost control of the bike and fell on the left arm. He has significant pain and can’t lift his arm away from his side. AP and lateral x-rays of the left humerus are shown in figures 1 and 2. He has mild swelling on exam, his skin is intact, and his neurovascular exam is normal. Which form of immobilization would be the most appropriate option for this patient?

    Correct

    Humeral shaft fractures are generally treated nonoperatively as gravity of the arm helps assist fracture reduction for displaced fractures. Healing rates are as high as 90% with non-operative treatment. Criteria for non-operative treatment includes < 20 degrees of anterior angulation, < 30 degrees of varus/valgus angulation, and < 3 cm of shortening. Humeral bracing is indicated for non-operative fractures to help stabilize the fracture. A Sarmiento brace wraps circumferentially around the humerus and allows mobilization of the shoulder and elbow joint. A coaptation or U-shaped splint should go proximally to the axilla and over the deltoid laterally. A sling takes away some of the gravitational pull of the arm that helps reduce the fracture which is not ideal for humeral shaft fractures. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1.Attum B, Obremskey W. Treatment of Humeral Shaft Fractures. A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Rev, 3(9):e5 | Review Article with Critical Analysis Component | September 29, 2015
    2. Ali E, Griffiths D, Obi N, Tytherleigh-Strong G, Van Rensburg L. Nonoperative treatment of humeral shaft fractures revisited. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2015 Feb 1;24(2):210-4.

    Incorrect

    Humeral shaft fractures are generally treated nonoperatively as gravity of the arm helps assist fracture reduction for displaced fractures. Healing rates are as high as 90% with non-operative treatment. Criteria for non-operative treatment includes < 20 degrees of anterior angulation, < 30 degrees of varus/valgus angulation, and < 3 cm of shortening. Humeral bracing is indicated for non-operative fractures to help stabilize the fracture. A Sarmiento brace wraps circumferentially around the humerus and allows mobilization of the shoulder and elbow joint. A coaptation or U-shaped splint should go proximally to the axilla and over the deltoid laterally. A sling takes away some of the gravitational pull of the arm that helps reduce the fracture which is not ideal for humeral shaft fractures. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1.Attum B, Obremskey W. Treatment of Humeral Shaft Fractures. A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Rev, 3(9):e5 | Review Article with Critical Analysis Component | September 29, 2015
    2. Ali E, Griffiths D, Obi N, Tytherleigh-Strong G, Van Rensburg L. Nonoperative treatment of humeral shaft fractures revisited. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2015 Feb 1;24(2):210-4.

  13. Question 13 of 86
    13. Question


    A 64 year old female presents to the emergency room with severe right shoulder pain after a fall. She tripped on her side walk and fell with the arm extended. She is unable to move the arm now due to severe pain. On physical exam she has a small are of ecchymosis over the deltoid but otherwise no deformity. AP x-ray of the right shoulder is shown in figure 1. What is the primary cause of this patient’s inferior subluxation of the humeral head?

    Correct

    Proximal humerus fractures are one of the most common fracture types that occur in adults. Proximal humerus fractures represent 20% of all fragility fractures (fall from a standing height in patients with osteoporotic bone). Radiographs are the initial imaging modality and understanding fracture patterns is critical in guiding treatment. Inferior subluxation of the humeral head in relation to the glenoid is a common finding in proximal humerus fractures but can be misdiagnosed as a fracture dislocation. Recognizing this fracture pattern prevents unnecessary closed reduction attempts of the shoulder. Inferior subluxation is seen in less than 20% of proximal humerus fractures and is best seen on a shoulder AP view. Risk factors include advanced age, female gender, osteoporotic bone and obesity. The cause of the inferior subluxation is due to deltoid atony often from an axillary nerve injury. The inferior subluxation resolves spontaneously within 6 weeks in 90% of patients and is rarely seen beyond one year regardless of conservative vs. surgical intervention. 1,2
    Answer D.
    1. Cirino CM, Kantrowitz DE, Cautela FS, Gao M, Cagle PJ, Parsons BO. Incidence and risk factors for pseudosubluxation of the humeral head following proximal humerus fracture. JSES international. 2022 May 1;6(3):338-42.
    2. Mighell MA, Kolm GP, Collinge CA, Frankle MA. Outcomes of hemiarthroplasty for fractures of the proximal humerus. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2003 Nov 1;12(6):569-77.7.

    Incorrect

    Proximal humerus fractures are one of the most common fracture types that occur in adults. Proximal humerus fractures represent 20% of all fragility fractures (fall from a standing height in patients with osteoporotic bone). Radiographs are the initial imaging modality and understanding fracture patterns is critical in guiding treatment. Inferior subluxation of the humeral head in relation to the glenoid is a common finding in proximal humerus fractures but can be misdiagnosed as a fracture dislocation. Recognizing this fracture pattern prevents unnecessary closed reduction attempts of the shoulder. Inferior subluxation is seen in less than 20% of proximal humerus fractures and is best seen on a shoulder AP view. Risk factors include advanced age, female gender, osteoporotic bone and obesity. The cause of the inferior subluxation is due to deltoid atony often from an axillary nerve injury. The inferior subluxation resolves spontaneously within 6 weeks in 90% of patients and is rarely seen beyond one year regardless of conservative vs. surgical intervention. 1,2
    Answer D.
    1. Cirino CM, Kantrowitz DE, Cautela FS, Gao M, Cagle PJ, Parsons BO. Incidence and risk factors for pseudosubluxation of the humeral head following proximal humerus fracture. JSES international. 2022 May 1;6(3):338-42.
    2. Mighell MA, Kolm GP, Collinge CA, Frankle MA. Outcomes of hemiarthroplasty for fractures of the proximal humerus. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2003 Nov 1;12(6):569-77.7.

  14. Question 14 of 86
    14. Question


    A 52 year old patient presents to your office with lower back pain with radiation to the right lower extremity. The pain radiates down the posterior leg to the right foot and he occasionally gets numbness in the foot. The pain started after a work related injury 2 years ago and has been intermittent since. He has tried physical therapy and home exercises over the last 6 months with some relief, but his symptoms have returned. He works in a laborious capacity as a floor installer. He states he can’t stand or walk for long periods of time as the pain will start to shoot down his right leg. He has not found anti-inflammatory medications to be helpful. On physical exam he has aching pain across his lower back and difficulty with bending, twisting, and walking. He has a positive straight leg raise on the right with pain down the right leg. His motor strength and sensation are intact in his lower extremities. AP and lateral lumbar x-rays (figures 1 and 2) show degenerative changes of the lumbar spine with levoscoliosis. MRI of the lumbar spine shows foraminal stenosis on the right side at L3-4. Which injection technique is the most effective option for relieving this patient’s pain?

    Correct

    Lower back pain with radiculopathy is one of the most common complaints seen in a healthcare setting. Most patients can be treated successfully with 2-3 months of conservative treatment such as physical therapy, NSAIDs, oral steroids, chiropractic treatment, and acupuncture, to name a few. When patients fail these conservative treatments, fluoroscopic-guided lumbar spinal injections are often the last resort for pain relief before surgical intervention is considered. Fluoroscopic-guided lumbar steroid injections are the most common injection technique used to treat lumbar spine pain with and without radiculopathy. Steroids relieve pain by targeting inflammation causing chemical irritation on a nerve root. Lumbar epidural injections are generally performed with an interlaminar or transforaminal approach. With the interlaminar approach, the medication is delivered into the posterior epidural space. The lumbar transforaminal approach is more technically demanding as the needle is inserted close to the nerve root as it exits the neuroforamen. The benefit of the transforaminal approach is that the steroid is injected closer to the anterior epidural space where most disc and nerve root pathology occurs. Transforaminal epidural steroid injections (ESI’s) are the treatment of choice for patients with radicular pain worse. Lumbar epidural injections are an effective short- and long-term treatment option for patients. The majority of patients (>75%) who have failed other conservative options will get relief and avoid the need for surgery. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Manchikanti L, Knezevic NN, Navani A, Christo PJ, Limerick G, Calodney AK, Grider J, Harned ME, Cintron L, Gharibo CG, Shah S, Nampiaparampil DE, Candido KD, Soin A, Kaye AD, Kosanovic R, Magee TR, Beall DP, Atluri S, Gupta M, Helm Ii S, Wargo BW, Diwan S, Aydin SM, Boswell MV, Haney BW, Albers SL, Latchaw R, Abd-Elsayed A, Conn A, Hansen H, Simopoulos TT, Swicegood JR, Bryce DA, Singh V, Abdi S,

    Incorrect

    Lower back pain with radiculopathy is one of the most common complaints seen in a healthcare setting. Most patients can be treated successfully with 2-3 months of conservative treatment such as physical therapy, NSAIDs, oral steroids, chiropractic treatment, and acupuncture, to name a few. When patients fail these conservative treatments, fluoroscopic-guided lumbar spinal injections are often the last resort for pain relief before surgical intervention is considered. Fluoroscopic-guided lumbar steroid injections are the most common injection technique used to treat lumbar spine pain with and without radiculopathy. Steroids relieve pain by targeting inflammation causing chemical irritation on a nerve root. Lumbar epidural injections are generally performed with an interlaminar or transforaminal approach. With the interlaminar approach, the medication is delivered into the posterior epidural space. The lumbar transforaminal approach is more technically demanding as the needle is inserted close to the nerve root as it exits the neuroforamen. The benefit of the transforaminal approach is that the steroid is injected closer to the anterior epidural space where most disc and nerve root pathology occurs. Transforaminal epidural steroid injections (ESI’s) are the treatment of choice for patients with radicular pain worse. Lumbar epidural injections are an effective short- and long-term treatment option for patients. The majority of patients (>75%) who have failed other conservative options will get relief and avoid the need for surgery. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Manchikanti L, Knezevic NN, Navani A, Christo PJ, Limerick G, Calodney AK, Grider J, Harned ME, Cintron L, Gharibo CG, Shah S, Nampiaparampil DE, Candido KD, Soin A, Kaye AD, Kosanovic R, Magee TR, Beall DP, Atluri S, Gupta M, Helm Ii S, Wargo BW, Diwan S, Aydin SM, Boswell MV, Haney BW, Albers SL, Latchaw R, Abd-Elsayed A, Conn A, Hansen H, Simopoulos TT, Swicegood JR, Bryce DA, Singh V, Abdi S,

  15. Question 15 of 86
    15. Question


    A 36 year old male presents to your office with right ankle pain after a fall earlier in the day. He is having difficulty bearing weight on the ankle since the fall. On physical exam he has mild swelling at the medial and lateral ankle. He has tenderness to palpation at the anterior and posterior ankle joint. AP and lateral x-rays show a subtle nondisplaced fracture of the posterior malleolus (figures 1 and 2). What is the next best step in treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    Most posterior malleolar fractures occur in the setting of other fractures such as the trimalleolar fracture pattern (lateral, medial, and posterior malleolus fractures). Isolated posterior malleolar fractures (as with this case) are far less common and easy to miss. The importance of an intact posterior malleolus is to maintain a congruent joint line and provide stability to the ankle joint. AP, lateral and mortise view x-rays should be performed initially to determine the fracture pattern and to look for evidence of a syndesmotic injury. CT is recommended for all posterior malleolar fractures to check for joint space congruity and lateralization of the talus. For isolated, non-displaced posterior malleolar fractures, non-operative treatment with a non-weightbearing boot or cast is recommended. There is no clear consensus on indications for operative treatment but in general a fracture involving >33% of the articular surface and a >2mm articular step off are indications for open reduction and internal fixation. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Irwin, Todd A. MD; Lien, John MD; Kadakia, Anish R. MD. Posterior Malleolus Fracture. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 21(1):p 32-40, January 2013. | DOI: dx.doi.org/10.5435/JAAOS-21-01-32
    2. Smeeing DPJ, Houwert RM, Kruyt MC, Hietbrink F. The isolated posterior malleolar fracture and syndesmotic instability: A case report and review of the literature. Int J Surg Case Rep. 2017;41:360-365. doi: 10.1016/j.ijscr.2017.10.062. Epub 2017 Nov 13. PMID: 29149741; PMCID: PMC5695917.

    Incorrect

    Most posterior malleolar fractures occur in the setting of other fractures such as the trimalleolar fracture pattern (lateral, medial, and posterior malleolus fractures). Isolated posterior malleolar fractures (as with this case) are far less common and easy to miss. The importance of an intact posterior malleolus is to maintain a congruent joint line and provide stability to the ankle joint. AP, lateral and mortise view x-rays should be performed initially to determine the fracture pattern and to look for evidence of a syndesmotic injury. CT is recommended for all posterior malleolar fractures to check for joint space congruity and lateralization of the talus. For isolated, non-displaced posterior malleolar fractures, non-operative treatment with a non-weightbearing boot or cast is recommended. There is no clear consensus on indications for operative treatment but in general a fracture involving >33% of the articular surface and a >2mm articular step off are indications for open reduction and internal fixation. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Irwin, Todd A. MD; Lien, John MD; Kadakia, Anish R. MD. Posterior Malleolus Fracture. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 21(1):p 32-40, January 2013. | DOI: dx.doi.org/10.5435/JAAOS-21-01-32
    2. Smeeing DPJ, Houwert RM, Kruyt MC, Hietbrink F. The isolated posterior malleolar fracture and syndesmotic instability: A case report and review of the literature. Int J Surg Case Rep. 2017;41:360-365. doi: 10.1016/j.ijscr.2017.10.062. Epub 2017 Nov 13. PMID: 29149741; PMCID: PMC5695917.

  16. Question 16 of 86
    16. Question


    A 22 year old female presents to your office with right wrist pain after being involved in an altercation the day before. She was struck on the wrist and had immediate pain and difficulty lifting with the hand. On physical exam she has mild swelling and pain over the ulnar side of the wrist. Pain is made worse with ulnar deviation of the wrist. AP x-ray (figure1) shows an isolated ulnar styloid fracture. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The ulnar styloid is a bony projection of the distal ulnar that serves as an attachment site for distal radial and ulnar joint ligaments (DRUJ) and triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). Isolated ulnar styloid fractures are rare as they usually occur in association with distal radius fractures. Although the non-union rate for ulnar styloid fractures can be as high as 77%, rarely due they cause any DRUJ instability or require surgical fixation. Treatment of minimally displaced fractures includes a short arm cast for 6 weeks. The size and amount of displacement of the ulnar styloid fracture is the best predictor of resulting DRUJ instability. Fractures can occur (from smallest to largest) at the tip, base, or the larger fovea. Fractures at the tip are the most common and least likely to cause instability. Fractures with >2mm of displacement are more likely to cause DRUJ instability. Displaced ulnar styloid fractures can increase the likelihood of symptomatic abutment to the carpus. Evidence of DRUJ instability include a positive Ballottement test, widening of the DRUJ on AP x-ray, and radioulnar distance of more than 6mm on lateral view x-ray. 1,2,3
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Maniglio M, Park IJ, Zumstein M, Kuenzler M, McGarry MH, Lee TQ. The critical size of ulnar Styloid Fragment for the DRUJ Stability. Journal of wrist surgery. 2021 Oct;10(05):385-91.
    2. Mirghasemi AR, Lee DJ, Rahimi N, Rashidinia S, Elfar JC. Distal Radioulnar Joint Instability. Geriatr Orthop Surg Rehabil. 2015 Sep;6(3):225-9.
    3. Logan AJ, Lindau TR. The management of distal ulnar fractures in adults: a review of the literature and recommendations for treatment. Strategies Trauma Limb Reconstr. 2008 Sep;3(2):49-56.

    Incorrect

    The ulnar styloid is a bony projection of the distal ulnar that serves as an attachment site for distal radial and ulnar joint ligaments (DRUJ) and triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). Isolated ulnar styloid fractures are rare as they usually occur in association with distal radius fractures. Although the non-union rate for ulnar styloid fractures can be as high as 77%, rarely due they cause any DRUJ instability or require surgical fixation. Treatment of minimally displaced fractures includes a short arm cast for 6 weeks. The size and amount of displacement of the ulnar styloid fracture is the best predictor of resulting DRUJ instability. Fractures can occur (from smallest to largest) at the tip, base, or the larger fovea. Fractures at the tip are the most common and least likely to cause instability. Fractures with >2mm of displacement are more likely to cause DRUJ instability. Displaced ulnar styloid fractures can increase the likelihood of symptomatic abutment to the carpus. Evidence of DRUJ instability include a positive Ballottement test, widening of the DRUJ on AP x-ray, and radioulnar distance of more than 6mm on lateral view x-ray. 1,2,3
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Maniglio M, Park IJ, Zumstein M, Kuenzler M, McGarry MH, Lee TQ. The critical size of ulnar Styloid Fragment for the DRUJ Stability. Journal of wrist surgery. 2021 Oct;10(05):385-91.
    2. Mirghasemi AR, Lee DJ, Rahimi N, Rashidinia S, Elfar JC. Distal Radioulnar Joint Instability. Geriatr Orthop Surg Rehabil. 2015 Sep;6(3):225-9.
    3. Logan AJ, Lindau TR. The management of distal ulnar fractures in adults: a review of the literature and recommendations for treatment. Strategies Trauma Limb Reconstr. 2008 Sep;3(2):49-56.

  17. Question 17 of 86
    17. Question


    A 13-year-old presents to your office one week out from a right ring finger injury. He was playing basketball when he jumped up and grabbed the net and felt a pop in his finger and some sharp pain. AP and lateral x-rays of the finger are negative for a fracture. On physical exam he is unable to flex his distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint but can flex his interphalangeal (IP) joint (figure 1). When holding his middle phalanx in extension, he is unable to flex the DIP joint at all (figure 2). What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Correct

    A careful physical exam and knowledge of finger anatomy is essential to prevent missing finger injuries. The main flexor tendons of the finger include the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons. The FDS tendon inserts at the volar aspect of the middle phalanx and acts to flex the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The FDP tendon inserts at the volar base of the distal phalanx and acts to flex the DIP joint. A Jersey Finger is an avulsion of the FDP tendon off its insertion at the at the base of the distal phalanx. The mechanism of injury is a forced extension on a flexed finger such as when a football player grabs a jersey while the player runs away. The middle finger is involved in 75% of cases as the increased length results in a more forceful DIP flexion when grasping. On physical exam patients will have an inability to make a full fist and to flex the DIP joint. X-rays of the finger are critical for identifying a bony avulsion vs. a pure tendon avulsion. FDP avulsion injuries require surgical repair which includes reattaching the tendon back down to the distal phalanx. This should be performed within 3 weeks of injury or the tendon can retract and become irreparable. Avulsion fractures often require open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture fragment. Hand therapy is used postoperatively and return to sports is expected around 3 months post-op. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Ruchelsman, David E. MD; Christoforou, Dimitrios MD; Wasserman, Bradley MD; Lee, Steve K. MD; Rettig, Michael E. MD. Avulsion Injuries of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus Tendon. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon: March 2011 – Volume 19 – Issue 3 – p 152-162
    2. Bachoura A, Ferikes AJ, Lubahn JD. A review of mallet finger and jersey finger injuries in the athlete. Curr Rev Musculoskelet Med. 2017 Mar;10(1):1-9.

    Incorrect

    A careful physical exam and knowledge of finger anatomy is essential to prevent missing finger injuries. The main flexor tendons of the finger include the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons. The FDS tendon inserts at the volar aspect of the middle phalanx and acts to flex the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The FDP tendon inserts at the volar base of the distal phalanx and acts to flex the DIP joint. A Jersey Finger is an avulsion of the FDP tendon off its insertion at the at the base of the distal phalanx. The mechanism of injury is a forced extension on a flexed finger such as when a football player grabs a jersey while the player runs away. The middle finger is involved in 75% of cases as the increased length results in a more forceful DIP flexion when grasping. On physical exam patients will have an inability to make a full fist and to flex the DIP joint. X-rays of the finger are critical for identifying a bony avulsion vs. a pure tendon avulsion. FDP avulsion injuries require surgical repair which includes reattaching the tendon back down to the distal phalanx. This should be performed within 3 weeks of injury or the tendon can retract and become irreparable. Avulsion fractures often require open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture fragment. Hand therapy is used postoperatively and return to sports is expected around 3 months post-op. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Ruchelsman, David E. MD; Christoforou, Dimitrios MD; Wasserman, Bradley MD; Lee, Steve K. MD; Rettig, Michael E. MD. Avulsion Injuries of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus Tendon. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon: March 2011 – Volume 19 – Issue 3 – p 152-162
    2. Bachoura A, Ferikes AJ, Lubahn JD. A review of mallet finger and jersey finger injuries in the athlete. Curr Rev Musculoskelet Med. 2017 Mar;10(1):1-9.

  18. Question 18 of 86
    18. Question


    A 30-year-old right hand dominant electrician presents to your office with recurrent right shoulder pain and instability for at least 5 years. He had an arthroscopic stabilization procedure for a Bankart tear 3 years ago which worked well for a while but over the past year he has noticed more pain and instability. The right shoulder dislocated again last week during a basketball game and he was closed reduced in the emergency room a few hours later. Figure 1 shows an AP view of the right shoulder after the dislocation and Figure 2 shows the shoulder after closed reduction. MRI shows a moderate Hill-Sachs lesion without evidence of capsule or ligament tear. CT scan shows 25% loss of the glenoid bony surface from an old bony Bankart lesion. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Glenohumeral joint stability is provided by a combination of bony anatomy, joint capsule, glenohumeral ligaments, and labrum. A Bankart lesion, or an avulsion of the anterior labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament, is the most common cause of traumatic shoulder instability. An arthroscopic Bankart repair is the most common surgical stabilization procedure. Bony Bankarts, or when bone is avulsed from the glenoid, can also create glenohumeral instability. Bony Bankarts are more likely to occur with repetitive dislocations and the bony defects increase in size with increasing number of dislocations. The analogy of a golf ball resting on a golf tee is commonly used to describe bony stability of the glenohumeral joint. If a critical piece of the golf tee surface is removed, the golf ball will no longer rest on top. When the glenoid loses 21%-30% of its bony surface, glenohumeral stability is reduced substantially. In younger athletes, bone loss as low as 13.5% has been associated with unacceptable joint instability. CT scan is the study of choice to quantify the percentage of glenoid bone loss. In patients with chronic instability and significant glenoid bone loss, a procedure to add bone to the glenoid to increase its surface area is often necessary. The most common procedure involves taking a coracoid autograft and attaching it to the glenoid, or a Latarjet procedure. 1,2
    Answer C.

    References
    1. Willemot, Laurent B. MD; Elhassan, Bassem T. MD; Verborgt, Olivier MD, PhD. Bony Reconstruction of the Anterior Glenoid Rim. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 10 – p e207-e218
    2. Bencardino JT, Gyftopoulos S, Palmer WE. Imaging in anterior glenohumeral instability. Radiology. 2013 Nov;269(2):323-37.

    Incorrect

    Glenohumeral joint stability is provided by a combination of bony anatomy, joint capsule, glenohumeral ligaments, and labrum. A Bankart lesion, or an avulsion of the anterior labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament, is the most common cause of traumatic shoulder instability. An arthroscopic Bankart repair is the most common surgical stabilization procedure. Bony Bankarts, or when bone is avulsed from the glenoid, can also create glenohumeral instability. Bony Bankarts are more likely to occur with repetitive dislocations and the bony defects increase in size with increasing number of dislocations. The analogy of a golf ball resting on a golf tee is commonly used to describe bony stability of the glenohumeral joint. If a critical piece of the golf tee surface is removed, the golf ball will no longer rest on top. When the glenoid loses 21%-30% of its bony surface, glenohumeral stability is reduced substantially. In younger athletes, bone loss as low as 13.5% has been associated with unacceptable joint instability. CT scan is the study of choice to quantify the percentage of glenoid bone loss. In patients with chronic instability and significant glenoid bone loss, a procedure to add bone to the glenoid to increase its surface area is often necessary. The most common procedure involves taking a coracoid autograft and attaching it to the glenoid, or a Latarjet procedure. 1,2
    Answer C.

    References
    1. Willemot, Laurent B. MD; Elhassan, Bassem T. MD; Verborgt, Olivier MD, PhD. Bony Reconstruction of the Anterior Glenoid Rim. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 10 – p e207-e218
    2. Bencardino JT, Gyftopoulos S, Palmer WE. Imaging in anterior glenohumeral instability. Radiology. 2013 Nov;269(2):323-37.

  19. Question 19 of 86
    19. Question

    A 5 year old male presents to your office with right hip pain and limp for the past month. His mother has noticed his symptoms and is concerned as the child did not sustain any obvious injury. The mom denies any recent viral infection, fever, chills, or sweats. He seems to be acting fine other than the limp and occasional complaints of hip pain. On physical exam he has a mild decrease in hip abduction and internal rotation on the right compared to the left. He has no leg length discrepancy. AP and frog leg lateral x-rays of the hip are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    The child is presenting with hip pain, a limp, and collapse of the femoral head on x-rays which is consistent with the diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease (LCPD). LCPD is an idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head that generally occurs between the ages of 5 and 8 years old. The most common presenting symptoms are mild hip pain and a limp. The natural course of the condition starts with sclerosis of the epiphysis, loss of epiphyseal height, fragmentation and fissuring of the epiphysis, followed by maximal collapse and fissuring, and finally new bone formation and healing. The course of symptom onset to resolution can last over a period of 2-4 years. AP and frog leg lateral x-rays can be performed every 3-4 months to ensure the femoral head is contained in the acetabulum and to track the course of the disease. The amount of femoral head collapse correlates with outcome, including the likelihood of developing a hip deformity and secondary osteoarthritis. Age of symptom onset is a significant predictor of outcome as younger patients have more time to grow out of any residual deformities. Age of onset <6 years of age can be treated successful with nonsurgical management (activity modification based on symptoms). Bracing and physical therapy are not necessary or helpful for improving outcomes in patients <6 without severe epiphyseal collapse. Age of onset between 6 and 8 years of age offers a less predictable course and surgical vs. nonsurgical outcomes are comparable in this group. Patients with symptom onset at 8 years of age and older are more prone to femoral head and acetabular abnormalities and poor hip function. Surgery is often performed early in the course of the disease for these patients to minimize the risk of secondary degenerative arthritis. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Herring JA, Kim HT, Browne R. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease: part II: prospective multicenter study of the effect of treatment on outcome. JBJS. 2004 Oct 1;86(10):2121-34.
    2. Kim, Harry K. W. MD. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon: November 2010 – Volume 18 – Issue 11 – p 676-686

    Incorrect

    The child is presenting with hip pain, a limp, and collapse of the femoral head on x-rays which is consistent with the diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease (LCPD). LCPD is an idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head that generally occurs between the ages of 5 and 8 years old. The most common presenting symptoms are mild hip pain and a limp. The natural course of the condition starts with sclerosis of the epiphysis, loss of epiphyseal height, fragmentation and fissuring of the epiphysis, followed by maximal collapse and fissuring, and finally new bone formation and healing. The course of symptom onset to resolution can last over a period of 2-4 years. AP and frog leg lateral x-rays can be performed every 3-4 months to ensure the femoral head is contained in the acetabulum and to track the course of the disease. The amount of femoral head collapse correlates with outcome, including the likelihood of developing a hip deformity and secondary osteoarthritis. Age of symptom onset is a significant predictor of outcome as younger patients have more time to grow out of any residual deformities. Age of onset <6 years of age can be treated successful with nonsurgical management (activity modification based on symptoms). Bracing and physical therapy are not necessary or helpful for improving outcomes in patients <6 without severe epiphyseal collapse. Age of onset between 6 and 8 years of age offers a less predictable course and surgical vs. nonsurgical outcomes are comparable in this group. Patients with symptom onset at 8 years of age and older are more prone to femoral head and acetabular abnormalities and poor hip function. Surgery is often performed early in the course of the disease for these patients to minimize the risk of secondary degenerative arthritis. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Herring JA, Kim HT, Browne R. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease: part II: prospective multicenter study of the effect of treatment on outcome. JBJS. 2004 Oct 1;86(10):2121-34.
    2. Kim, Harry K. W. MD. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon: November 2010 – Volume 18 – Issue 11 – p 676-686

  20. Question 20 of 86
    20. Question

    A 65 year old male presents to your office with complaints of right lower extremity edema for one week. His knee occasionally swells which has coincided with his lower extremity edema over the past week. He went to the emergency room a few days ago and was ruled out for a DVT. He states the ultrasound showed a Baker’s cyst in the back of his knee. He has a history of a right total knee replacement 13 years ago. He works construction and admits the knee has bothered him on occasional over the last few years but he mostly ignores the pain because he is busy at work. On physical exam he as a small knee effusion and +1 pitting edema in the right lower extremity. He has no edema in his left leg and his pulses are strong in bilateral lower extremities. Figure 1 is a picture of both legs while he is sitting. Figure 2 and 3 are AP and lateral x-rays of his right knee, respectively. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s knee swelling and unilateral lower extremity edema?

    Correct

    The patient has a Baker’s cyst that is compressing the vessels in the back of the knee resulting in venous obstruction and lower extremity edema. The most common cause of a Baker’s cyst is osteoarthritis of the knee however this patient has already had a total knee replacement. On careful inspection of this patients x-rays you can see metal wear on the medial tibial base plate from the femoral implant. This represents severe wear and failure of the polyethylene liner. Metal debris can be seen on lateral view x-ray which is evidence that the patient likely has synovitis from significant metallosis. Metallosis is an uncommon complication of total joint surgery where metal debris from implant wear infiltrates the surrounding soft tissue causing chronic inflammation. The most common symptoms include pain and swelling in the involved joint. The treatment for patients with metallosis include a non-urgent synovectomy and revision joint replacement. If left untreated, metallosis can cause progressive destruction of the involved joint. Metallosis can also cause systemic toxicity as cobalt and chromium can enter the blood stream and accumulate in organs. 1,2

    Answer B.

    1. Vivegananthan B, Shah R, Karuppiah AS, Karuppiah SV. Metallosis in a total knee arthroplasty. BMJ Case Rep. 2014 Mar 18;2014:bcr2013202801. doi: 10.1136/bcr-2013-202801. PMID: 24642179; PMCID: PMC3962890.
    2. Bradberry SM, Wilkinson JM, Ferner RE. Systemic toxicity related to metal hip prostheses. Clin Toxicol (Phila). 2014 Sep-Oct;52(8):837-47. doi: 10.3109/15563650.2014.944977. Epub 2014 Aug 16. PMID: 25132471.

    Incorrect

    The patient has a Baker’s cyst that is compressing the vessels in the back of the knee resulting in venous obstruction and lower extremity edema. The most common cause of a Baker’s cyst is osteoarthritis of the knee however this patient has already had a total knee replacement. On careful inspection of this patients x-rays you can see metal wear on the medial tibial base plate from the femoral implant. This represents severe wear and failure of the polyethylene liner. Metal debris can be seen on lateral view x-ray which is evidence that the patient likely has synovitis from significant metallosis. Metallosis is an uncommon complication of total joint surgery where metal debris from implant wear infiltrates the surrounding soft tissue causing chronic inflammation. The most common symptoms include pain and swelling in the involved joint. The treatment for patients with metallosis include a non-urgent synovectomy and revision joint replacement. If left untreated, metallosis can cause progressive destruction of the involved joint. Metallosis can also cause systemic toxicity as cobalt and chromium can enter the blood stream and accumulate in organs. 1,2

    Answer B.

    1. Vivegananthan B, Shah R, Karuppiah AS, Karuppiah SV. Metallosis in a total knee arthroplasty. BMJ Case Rep. 2014 Mar 18;2014:bcr2013202801. doi: 10.1136/bcr-2013-202801. PMID: 24642179; PMCID: PMC3962890.
    2. Bradberry SM, Wilkinson JM, Ferner RE. Systemic toxicity related to metal hip prostheses. Clin Toxicol (Phila). 2014 Sep-Oct;52(8):837-47. doi: 10.3109/15563650.2014.944977. Epub 2014 Aug 16. PMID: 25132471.

  21. Question 21 of 86
    21. Question

    A 35 year old male presents to the office with left foot pain after tripping up the stairs 2 days ago. He has developed pain and swelling over the lateral aspect of his foot and is having trouble bearing weight. On exam you note tenderness to palpation over the 5th metatarsal and moderate lateral foot swelling. AP, oblique, and lateral view x-rays of the left foot are shown in figures 1,2, and 3 respectively. This fracture is often referred to as what type of fracture?

    Correct

    Metatarsal fractures are one of the most common orthopedic injuries seen in the urgent care setting. Injury mechanism varies from overuse type (stress related), low impact like, twisting of the foot (most common), or a traumatic high energy impact (less common). The 2nd metatarsal is the most common site of stress fractures whereas the 5th metatarsal is the most common for all other types of fractures. Most metatarsal factures can be treated non-operatively with a weight bearing cast or boot with no difference in outcomes between the two. Surgical indications for 1rst metatarsal fractures include angulation greater than 10°, greater than 3 to 4 mm of displacement, articular involvement, and the presence of rotational deformity or shortening. Normal length and alignment of the first metatarsal is critical to prevent weight transfer to the other metatarsals during ambulation. Central metatarsal (2-4) fractures have more stability due to the surrounding soft tissue attachments. Indications for surgery for central fractures include sagittal plane deformity >10 degrees, >4mm of translation and multiple bones involved. Fractures of the proximal fifth metatarsal are broken into Zone 1 (metatarsal base avulsion fractures), zone 2 (metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction or Jones fractures), and Zone 3 as the proximal diaphyseal fractures. Zone 1 fractures account for 95% of proximal 5th metatarsal fractures. A spiral fracture of the distal 5th metatarsal diaphysis is often called a Dancer’s fracture. 1,2

    References
    1. Sarpong NO, Swindell HW, Trupia EP, Vosseller JT. Metatarsal fractures. Foot & Ankle Orthopaedics. 2018 Aug 9;3(3):2473011418775094.
    2. O’Malley MJ, Hamilton WG, Munyak J. Fractures of the Distal Shaft of the Fifth Metatarsal: “Dancer’s Fracture.” The American Journal of Sports Medicine. 1996;24(2):240-243.

    Incorrect

    Metatarsal fractures are one of the most common orthopedic injuries seen in the urgent care setting. Injury mechanism varies from overuse type (stress related), low impact like, twisting of the foot (most common), or a traumatic high energy impact (less common). The 2nd metatarsal is the most common site of stress fractures whereas the 5th metatarsal is the most common for all other types of fractures. Most metatarsal factures can be treated non-operatively with a weight bearing cast or boot with no difference in outcomes between the two. Surgical indications for 1rst metatarsal fractures include angulation greater than 10°, greater than 3 to 4 mm of displacement, articular involvement, and the presence of rotational deformity or shortening. Normal length and alignment of the first metatarsal is critical to prevent weight transfer to the other metatarsals during ambulation. Central metatarsal (2-4) fractures have more stability due to the surrounding soft tissue attachments. Indications for surgery for central fractures include sagittal plane deformity >10 degrees, >4mm of translation and multiple bones involved. Fractures of the proximal fifth metatarsal are broken into Zone 1 (metatarsal base avulsion fractures), zone 2 (metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction or Jones fractures), and Zone 3 as the proximal diaphyseal fractures. Zone 1 fractures account for 95% of proximal 5th metatarsal fractures. A spiral fracture of the distal 5th metatarsal diaphysis is often called a Dancer’s fracture. 1,2

    References
    1. Sarpong NO, Swindell HW, Trupia EP, Vosseller JT. Metatarsal fractures. Foot & Ankle Orthopaedics. 2018 Aug 9;3(3):2473011418775094.
    2. O’Malley MJ, Hamilton WG, Munyak J. Fractures of the Distal Shaft of the Fifth Metatarsal: “Dancer’s Fracture.” The American Journal of Sports Medicine. 1996;24(2):240-243.

  22. Question 22 of 86
    22. Question

    A 17-year-old female presents to your office with left foot pain for the last 8 weeks. She is an avid runner and 6 weeks ago had an x-ray showing a subtle periosteal reaction around the distal third metatarsal (figure 1). She was placed in a walking boot and has avoided running over the last 6 weeks. AP x-ray (figure 2) taken in the office show today significant callus formation around the distal third metatarsal. On physical exam she had mild tenderness to palpation over the distal third metatarsal. The patient is concerned about how the stress fracture occurred. Which statement is true regarding the risk of a stress fracture?

    Correct

    The incidence of lower extremity stress fractures is much more common in female athletes compared to males. Metatarsal stress fractures are particular common among female runners and dancers. The second and third metatarsal are the most common metatarsals to have a stress fracture due to their length and relative immobility. Early radiographic findings for a stress fracture may include a subtle radiolucency of the shaft and/or cortex. Subtle periosteal bone formation may be seen as early as 2 weeks from injury and thicker callus formation is usually seen at 4-6 weeks post-injury. Risk factors for stress fractures include inadequate dietary intake (which is associated with athletic amenorrhea), lack of rest to allow for proper bone turnover and healing, and a serum 25(OH)D level <40 ng/mL. Treatment involves resting the foot with an immobilizer weight bearing as tolerated. With a hard soled shoe taking pressure off the metatarsals, non-weight bearing restrictions is unnecessary. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Frank RM, Romeo AA, Bush-Joseph CA, Bach BR. Injuries to the Female Athlete in 2017. Part I: General Considerations, Concussions, Stress Fractures, and the Female Athlete Triad. 2017 Oct; JBJS Rev, 5(10):e4
    2. Miller JR, Dunn KW, Ciliberti Jr LJ, Patel RD, Swanson BA. Association of vitamin D with stress fractures: a retrospective cohort study. The Journal of Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2016 Jan 1;55(1):117-20.

    Incorrect

    The incidence of lower extremity stress fractures is much more common in female athletes compared to males. Metatarsal stress fractures are particular common among female runners and dancers. The second and third metatarsal are the most common metatarsals to have a stress fracture due to their length and relative immobility. Early radiographic findings for a stress fracture may include a subtle radiolucency of the shaft and/or cortex. Subtle periosteal bone formation may be seen as early as 2 weeks from injury and thicker callus formation is usually seen at 4-6 weeks post-injury. Risk factors for stress fractures include inadequate dietary intake (which is associated with athletic amenorrhea), lack of rest to allow for proper bone turnover and healing, and a serum 25(OH)D level <40 ng/mL. Treatment involves resting the foot with an immobilizer weight bearing as tolerated. With a hard soled shoe taking pressure off the metatarsals, non-weight bearing restrictions is unnecessary. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Frank RM, Romeo AA, Bush-Joseph CA, Bach BR. Injuries to the Female Athlete in 2017. Part I: General Considerations, Concussions, Stress Fractures, and the Female Athlete Triad. 2017 Oct; JBJS Rev, 5(10):e4
    2. Miller JR, Dunn KW, Ciliberti Jr LJ, Patel RD, Swanson BA. Association of vitamin D with stress fractures: a retrospective cohort study. The Journal of Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2016 Jan 1;55(1):117-20.

  23. Question 23 of 86
    23. Question

    A 78 year old female presents to the office with right elbow pain after a fall 2 days earlier. She was unable to get off the floor after the fall and was brought to the emergency room via ambulance. AP and lateral x-rays of the right elbow (figures 1 and 2) show a displaced olecranon fracture. She was placed in a sling and instructed to follow-up with orthopedics within the week. She is right hand dominant but admits to a low activity level. Her preference is to not have surgery if she doesn’t have to. Which statement is true regarding non-operative treatment vs. surgical fixation for displaced olecranon fractures?

    Correct

    The olecranon is an attachment site for the triceps muscle and a critical component of the elbow extensor mechanism. The most common mechanism of injury causing an olecranon fracture is a direct blow to the elbow. Non operative treatment is recommended for non-displaced fractures whereas surgery is recommended in most cases of displaced fractures. The most common surgical options include both plate fixation and tension band wiring. Fracture fixation is not without potential complications however, which can occur more often in elderly patients with poor skin and osteoporotic bone. Duckworth et al found that in low demand elderly patients, non-operative treatment of displaced olecranon fractures had similar short and long term outcomes compared to operative treatment. Non operative treatment of displaced fractures is the same as for nondisplaced fractures; the elbow is immobilized in 60-90 degrees of flexion for 2-3 weeks, followed by gentle motion, and lifting restrictions until healing is present on x-ray. Weekly x-rays should be taken for the first 2-3 weeks to make sure further displacement doesn’t occur. The mean displacement in the aforementioned Duckworth study was 10 mm and greater displacement was associated with worse outcomes. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Duckworth AD, Bugler KE, Clement ND, McQueen MM. Nonoperative management of displaced olecranon fractures in low-demand elderly patients. JBJS. 2014 Jan 1;96(1):67-72.
    2. Bailey CS, MacDermid J, Patterson SD, King GJ. Outcome of plate fixation of olecranon fractures. Journal of orthopaedic trauma. 2001 Nov 1;15(8):542-8.

    Incorrect

    The olecranon is an attachment site for the triceps muscle and a critical component of the elbow extensor mechanism. The most common mechanism of injury causing an olecranon fracture is a direct blow to the elbow. Non operative treatment is recommended for non-displaced fractures whereas surgery is recommended in most cases of displaced fractures. The most common surgical options include both plate fixation and tension band wiring. Fracture fixation is not without potential complications however, which can occur more often in elderly patients with poor skin and osteoporotic bone. Duckworth et al found that in low demand elderly patients, non-operative treatment of displaced olecranon fractures had similar short and long term outcomes compared to operative treatment. Non operative treatment of displaced fractures is the same as for nondisplaced fractures; the elbow is immobilized in 60-90 degrees of flexion for 2-3 weeks, followed by gentle motion, and lifting restrictions until healing is present on x-ray. Weekly x-rays should be taken for the first 2-3 weeks to make sure further displacement doesn’t occur. The mean displacement in the aforementioned Duckworth study was 10 mm and greater displacement was associated with worse outcomes. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Duckworth AD, Bugler KE, Clement ND, McQueen MM. Nonoperative management of displaced olecranon fractures in low-demand elderly patients. JBJS. 2014 Jan 1;96(1):67-72.
    2. Bailey CS, MacDermid J, Patterson SD, King GJ. Outcome of plate fixation of olecranon fractures. Journal of orthopaedic trauma. 2001 Nov 1;15(8):542-8.

  24. Question 24 of 86
    24. Question

    A 19 year old male presents to your office with left thigh pain and a leg mass for at least the past 2 years. Over the last few months he has been playing a lot soccer and has noticed the lateral thigh become more sore. On physical exam he has a palpable mass near the distal thigh on the left side about 2 inches above the superior pole of the patella. As he bends and straightens his knee, there is some popping and he feels the IT band is getting hung up on the mass. AP x-ray of the knee shows a mass on the lateral distal femur (figure 1). MRI shows a pedunculated osseus protuberance at the metaphysis of the distal lateral left femur with a cartilaginous cap. There is mild edema to the vastus medialis muscle secondary to mass effect/impingement of the lesion. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The patient has a lesion at the lateral distal femur consistent with a benign osteochondroma. Osteochondromas are the most common benign bone tumor and most are asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray. Malignant transformation of osteochondromas is rare (<1%) so most are left alone. Tumor growth after skeletal maturity raises suspicion of potential malignant transformation. X-ray, MRI, and clinical presentation are more than enough to make the diagnosis of an osteochondroma and a bone biopsy is not indicated. Rarely osteochondromas can cause a mass effect on surrounding nerves, blood vessels, muscle, tendons and other soft tissue. Surgical resection of the osteochondroma is the treatment of choice in symptomatic patients when conservative treatments fail. Resection is a very successful surgery as less than 2% of osteochondromas will reoccur. Resection should be performed after patients reach skeletally maturity to be sure no further growth remains. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Heron N. Femoral exostosis causing vastus medialis pain in an active young lady: a case report. BMC Res Notes. 2015 Apr 2;8:119. doi: 10.1186/s13104-015-1077-0. PMID: 25889418; PMCID: PMC4387740.
    2. Wodajo FM. Top five lesions that do not need referral to orthopedic oncology. Orthop Clin North Am. 2015 Apr;46(2):303-14. doi: 10.1016/j.ocl.2014.11.012. PMID: 25771324.

    Incorrect

    The patient has a lesion at the lateral distal femur consistent with a benign osteochondroma. Osteochondromas are the most common benign bone tumor and most are asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray. Malignant transformation of osteochondromas is rare (<1%) so most are left alone. Tumor growth after skeletal maturity raises suspicion of potential malignant transformation. X-ray, MRI, and clinical presentation are more than enough to make the diagnosis of an osteochondroma and a bone biopsy is not indicated. Rarely osteochondromas can cause a mass effect on surrounding nerves, blood vessels, muscle, tendons and other soft tissue. Surgical resection of the osteochondroma is the treatment of choice in symptomatic patients when conservative treatments fail. Resection is a very successful surgery as less than 2% of osteochondromas will reoccur. Resection should be performed after patients reach skeletally maturity to be sure no further growth remains. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Heron N. Femoral exostosis causing vastus medialis pain in an active young lady: a case report. BMC Res Notes. 2015 Apr 2;8:119. doi: 10.1186/s13104-015-1077-0. PMID: 25889418; PMCID: PMC4387740.
    2. Wodajo FM. Top five lesions that do not need referral to orthopedic oncology. Orthop Clin North Am. 2015 Apr;46(2):303-14. doi: 10.1016/j.ocl.2014.11.012. PMID: 25771324.

  25. Question 25 of 86
    25. Question

    A 65 year old male presents to your office with mid back pain for one month. He believes the pain started after a standing height fall on his icy driveway. At the time he had mild back pain but was able to walk away from the fall without trouble. The back pain has been moderate and slightly progressive over the last month. His back pain is made worse with bending, squatting, and lifting. AP and lateral x-rays reveal a compression fracture at T11 (figures 1 and 2). Sagittal MRI image (figure 3) shows edema in the T11 vertebral body consistent with an acute compression fracture. He completed a DXA scan which showed he had normal bone density at the hip and lumbar spine. An intact parathyroid hormone, 25 (OH) vitamin D, complete metabolic panel, and complete blood count are all within normal limits. He denies a history of known cancer. What would be the next best test in the work-up of this patients fracture?

    Correct

    This patient sustained a low impact vertebral fracture in the setting of normal bone density which raises suspicion of a pathological fracture. The patient has a normal intact PTH, calcium, and vitamin D levels which rules out primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism. The most common primary bone malignancy and cause of a pathological vertebral fracture is multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is an incurable B lymphocyte malignancy characterized by proliferation and expansion of plasma cells in bone marrow. Symptoms can include fatigue and bone pain but many patients are completely asymptomatic and a pathological fracture is the first sign. Multiple myeloma is diagnosed when monoclonal proteins are found in the blood or urine. A serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP) detect these proteins and should be ordered in patients with a suspected pathological fracture of the vertebral spine in the absence of a known cause of metastatic disease. If the SPEP and UPEP are positive then a bone marrow biopsy is performed to confirm plasma cells in the bone marrow. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Giorgi PD, Schirò GR, Capitani D, D’Aliberti G, Gallazzi E. Vertebral compression fractures in multiple myeloma: redefining the priorities during the COVID-19 pandemic. Aging Clinical and Experimental Research. 2020 Jul;32(7):1203-6.
    2. Angtuaco EJ, Fassas AB, Walker R, Sethi R, Barlogie B. Multiple myeloma: clinical review and diagnostic imaging. Radiology. 2004 Apr;231(1):11-23.

    Incorrect

    This patient sustained a low impact vertebral fracture in the setting of normal bone density which raises suspicion of a pathological fracture. The patient has a normal intact PTH, calcium, and vitamin D levels which rules out primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism. The most common primary bone malignancy and cause of a pathological vertebral fracture is multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is an incurable B lymphocyte malignancy characterized by proliferation and expansion of plasma cells in bone marrow. Symptoms can include fatigue and bone pain but many patients are completely asymptomatic and a pathological fracture is the first sign. Multiple myeloma is diagnosed when monoclonal proteins are found in the blood or urine. A serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP) detect these proteins and should be ordered in patients with a suspected pathological fracture of the vertebral spine in the absence of a known cause of metastatic disease. If the SPEP and UPEP are positive then a bone marrow biopsy is performed to confirm plasma cells in the bone marrow. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Giorgi PD, Schirò GR, Capitani D, D’Aliberti G, Gallazzi E. Vertebral compression fractures in multiple myeloma: redefining the priorities during the COVID-19 pandemic. Aging Clinical and Experimental Research. 2020 Jul;32(7):1203-6.
    2. Angtuaco EJ, Fassas AB, Walker R, Sethi R, Barlogie B. Multiple myeloma: clinical review and diagnostic imaging. Radiology. 2004 Apr;231(1):11-23.

  26. Question 26 of 86
    26. Question


    A 13 year old female presents to the ED with right elbow pain and deformity from a fall 2 hours earlier. She is a gymnast and fell awkwardly on the right arm from approximately 6 feet high. She has an obvious deformity to the elbow and is unable to move her arm after the fall. She is able to make a rock, papers, and scissors sign with her right hand. AP and lateral x-rays of the right elbow are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    Traumatic elbow dislocations in children are relatively rare injuries. Posterior dislocations are the most common type which are caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with the forearm supinated and the elbow in 15-20 degrees of flexion. The ulnar nerve is the most common nerve injured during a posterior lateral dislocation as the nerve is often stretched as the elbow goes into a valgus position. Asking the patient to perform “rock, paper, scissors” grossly test motor function. Making a fist test the medial nerve, paper tests the radial nerve (finger extension), and scissors test the ulnar nerve (spreading fingers apart). Medial epicondyle fractures can commonly occur in pediatric elbow dislocations as the medial condyle is the last ossification center in the distal humerus to fuse, usually by 15-20 years of age. The medial epicondyle is the attachment site to the flexor pronator mass and the ulnar collateral ligament. Recognizing a displaced medial epicondyle fracture is critical as the bone can block the elbow reduction. Significant displacement often requires open reduction and internal fixation of the medial epicondyle fracture with screw fixation, after closed reduction of the elbow, to prevent long term elbow instability. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Gottschalk HP, Eisner E, Hosalkar HS. Medial epicondyle fractures in the pediatric population. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2012 Apr 1;20(4):223-32.
    2. Varacallo M, Parikh D, Mody K, Herman MJ. Pediatric Elbow Dislocations: Acute Management. InPediatric Elbow Fractures 2018 (pp. 169-184). Springer, Cham.

    Incorrect

    Traumatic elbow dislocations in children are relatively rare injuries. Posterior dislocations are the most common type which are caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with the forearm supinated and the elbow in 15-20 degrees of flexion. The ulnar nerve is the most common nerve injured during a posterior lateral dislocation as the nerve is often stretched as the elbow goes into a valgus position. Asking the patient to perform “rock, paper, scissors” grossly test motor function. Making a fist test the medial nerve, paper tests the radial nerve (finger extension), and scissors test the ulnar nerve (spreading fingers apart). Medial epicondyle fractures can commonly occur in pediatric elbow dislocations as the medial condyle is the last ossification center in the distal humerus to fuse, usually by 15-20 years of age. The medial epicondyle is the attachment site to the flexor pronator mass and the ulnar collateral ligament. Recognizing a displaced medial epicondyle fracture is critical as the bone can block the elbow reduction. Significant displacement often requires open reduction and internal fixation of the medial epicondyle fracture with screw fixation, after closed reduction of the elbow, to prevent long term elbow instability. 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Gottschalk HP, Eisner E, Hosalkar HS. Medial epicondyle fractures in the pediatric population. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2012 Apr 1;20(4):223-32.
    2. Varacallo M, Parikh D, Mody K, Herman MJ. Pediatric Elbow Dislocations: Acute Management. InPediatric Elbow Fractures 2018 (pp. 169-184). Springer, Cham.

  27. Question 27 of 86
    27. Question

    An 8-year-old female is brought to the office by her mom with complaints of left elbow pain for 6 days. She injured the elbow from a fall off monkey bars and is having difficulty moving the elbow since the injury. On physical exam she has mild swelling around the elbow and tenderness to palpation over the olecranon and radial head. AP and lateral x-rays of the elbow (figures 1 and 2) taken in the ED the day of injury show fractures of the olecranon and radial neck. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Pediatric elbow injuries are one of the most common reasons for emergency room or urgent care visits. There are 6 growth centers around the elbow which can make interpreting x-rays difficult in pediatric age groups. Comparison x-rays of the un-injured elbow are often necessary to distinguish normal and abnormal findings. Supracondylar fractures are the most common fracture around the elbow (60%), followed by lateral and medial condylar fractures, and less common, radial head and olecranon fractures. Non-displaced fractures are treated non-operatively with a 3-4 week period of immobilization. Immobilizing options generally include a long arm cast, removable long arm splint, or a sling. The use of a long arm cast or posterior splint provides improved pain relief over a sling in the first two weeks from injury. Elbow immobilization should not be continued beyond 4 weeks as arthrofibrosis of the elbow can start to set in and could lead to a permanent loss of motion. Silva et al found that the use of a removable long arm soft cast (removable under parent supervision) for non-displaced elbow fractures provides a convenient option for patients while safely maintaining fracture alignment. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Lins RE, Simovitch RW, Waters PM. Pediatric elbow trauma. Orthopedic Clinics of North America. 1999 Jan 1;30(1):119-32.
    2. Silva M, Sadlik G, Avoian T, Ebramzadeh E. A removable long-arm soft cast to treat nondisplaced pediatric elbow fractures: a randomized, controlled trial. Journal of Pediatric Orthopaedics. 2018 Apr 1;38(4):223-9.

    Incorrect

    Pediatric elbow injuries are one of the most common reasons for emergency room or urgent care visits. There are 6 growth centers around the elbow which can make interpreting x-rays difficult in pediatric age groups. Comparison x-rays of the un-injured elbow are often necessary to distinguish normal and abnormal findings. Supracondylar fractures are the most common fracture around the elbow (60%), followed by lateral and medial condylar fractures, and less common, radial head and olecranon fractures. Non-displaced fractures are treated non-operatively with a 3-4 week period of immobilization. Immobilizing options generally include a long arm cast, removable long arm splint, or a sling. The use of a long arm cast or posterior splint provides improved pain relief over a sling in the first two weeks from injury. Elbow immobilization should not be continued beyond 4 weeks as arthrofibrosis of the elbow can start to set in and could lead to a permanent loss of motion. Silva et al found that the use of a removable long arm soft cast (removable under parent supervision) for non-displaced elbow fractures provides a convenient option for patients while safely maintaining fracture alignment. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Lins RE, Simovitch RW, Waters PM. Pediatric elbow trauma. Orthopedic Clinics of North America. 1999 Jan 1;30(1):119-32.
    2. Silva M, Sadlik G, Avoian T, Ebramzadeh E. A removable long-arm soft cast to treat nondisplaced pediatric elbow fractures: a randomized, controlled trial. Journal of Pediatric Orthopaedics. 2018 Apr 1;38(4):223-9.

  28. Question 28 of 86
    28. Question

    A 55-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of swelling along the posterior fibula of the right ankle. She denies a known injury or precipitating event. She is a mail carrier and walking on uneven ground seems to make the pain worse. On physical exam, she has pain with resisted eversion of the foot and pain to palpation over the proximal 5th metatarsal (location of pain shown in figure 1 x-ray of the right foot with a white arrow). She has tried ice and oral ibuprofen but continues to have persistent posterolateral ankle pain, swelling and mild ankle eversion weakness. Treatment should be aimed at which of the following?

    Correct

    The peroneal tendons include the peroneal brevis and peroneal longus tendons which primary function for foot eversion and pronation. Both tendons run along the lateral fibular and the peroneal brevis attaches to the base of the 5th metatarsal and the peroneal longus inserts on the plantar aspect of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform. Physical exam signs of peroneal tendonitis include pain to palpation running along the lateral fibular and pain with resisted eversion of the foot. Injury to the peroneal tendons can range from tenosynovitis, tendinosis, and tearing. These injuries can occur from a number of causes such as an ankle sprain, hindfoot varus deformity, and ankle sprains, to name a few. MRI is the best study of choice to distinguish between these injuries and to look for tendon subluxation and tearing. Treatment of peroneal tendon pain starts with immobilization, ice, and anti-inflammatories. A walking boot for 3-4 weeks generally helps reduce inflammation, followed by a slow progression to normal activities. A lateral heel wedge can reduce hindfoot varus taking pressure off the peroneal tendons. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Selmani E, Gjata V, Gjika E. Current concepts review: peroneal tendon disorders. Foot & ankle international. 2006 Mar;27(3):221-8.
    2. Philbin TM, Landis GS, Smith B. Peroneal tendon injuries. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2009 May 1;17(5):306-17.

    Incorrect

    The peroneal tendons include the peroneal brevis and peroneal longus tendons which primary function for foot eversion and pronation. Both tendons run along the lateral fibular and the peroneal brevis attaches to the base of the 5th metatarsal and the peroneal longus inserts on the plantar aspect of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform. Physical exam signs of peroneal tendonitis include pain to palpation running along the lateral fibular and pain with resisted eversion of the foot. Injury to the peroneal tendons can range from tenosynovitis, tendinosis, and tearing. These injuries can occur from a number of causes such as an ankle sprain, hindfoot varus deformity, and ankle sprains, to name a few. MRI is the best study of choice to distinguish between these injuries and to look for tendon subluxation and tearing. Treatment of peroneal tendon pain starts with immobilization, ice, and anti-inflammatories. A walking boot for 3-4 weeks generally helps reduce inflammation, followed by a slow progression to normal activities. A lateral heel wedge can reduce hindfoot varus taking pressure off the peroneal tendons. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Selmani E, Gjata V, Gjika E. Current concepts review: peroneal tendon disorders. Foot & ankle international. 2006 Mar;27(3):221-8.
    2. Philbin TM, Landis GS, Smith B. Peroneal tendon injuries. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2009 May 1;17(5):306-17.

  29. Question 29 of 86
    29. Question

    A 64-year-old female presents to your office with right hand pain after a fall 2 days ago. In particular, the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of the right ring finger seems to have taken the brunt of the fall. She has pain and swelling at the DIP joint of the ring finger but no deformity is noted. She is able to fully extend the DIP joint. AP and lateral x-ray of the right ring finger are shown in figures 1 and 2, respectively. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    The patient has a displaced intra-articular dorsal base fracture of the distal phalanx. Distal phalanx fractures are the most common type of phalanx fractures. The vast majority of phalangeal fractures can be treated non-operatively, even with some displacement. For dorsal base fractures, if the joint is congruent then the fracture pattern is stable and can be treated with distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) immobilization. If the distal phalanx is subluxed from the middle phalanx and the fracture involves >30% to 40% of the articular surface, then open or closed reduction with percutaneous fixation is generally required. The terminal extensor tendon attaches to the dorsal base of the distal phalanx and acts to extend the DIP joint. Fractures of the dorsal base can cause an extension lag if there is disruption in the terminal extensor mechanism. This patient has full extension at the DIP joint with an intact terminal extensor mechanism. The patient was treated with an alumafoam splint to the DIP joint to keep the joint congruent and in extension. 1,2
    Answer B.
    1. Henry, Mark. Fractures and Dislocations of the Hand. Rockwood, C. A., Green, D. P., & Bucholz, R. W. (2006). Pg 782-785. Rockwood and Green’s fractures in adults (6th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
    2. Phalanx fractures. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed on 5/28/2022.

    Incorrect

    The patient has a displaced intra-articular dorsal base fracture of the distal phalanx. Distal phalanx fractures are the most common type of phalanx fractures. The vast majority of phalangeal fractures can be treated non-operatively, even with some displacement. For dorsal base fractures, if the joint is congruent then the fracture pattern is stable and can be treated with distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) immobilization. If the distal phalanx is subluxed from the middle phalanx and the fracture involves >30% to 40% of the articular surface, then open or closed reduction with percutaneous fixation is generally required. The terminal extensor tendon attaches to the dorsal base of the distal phalanx and acts to extend the DIP joint. Fractures of the dorsal base can cause an extension lag if there is disruption in the terminal extensor mechanism. This patient has full extension at the DIP joint with an intact terminal extensor mechanism. The patient was treated with an alumafoam splint to the DIP joint to keep the joint congruent and in extension. 1,2
    Answer B.
    1. Henry, Mark. Fractures and Dislocations of the Hand. Rockwood, C. A., Green, D. P., & Bucholz, R. W. (2006). Pg 782-785. Rockwood and Green’s fractures in adults (6th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
    2. Phalanx fractures. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed on 5/28/2022.

  30. Question 30 of 86
    30. Question


    A 36 year old male presents to the emergency room with severe right leg pain after falling off the top of an 8 foot ladder a few hours ago. He lost balance and landed directly on the right leg when he hit the ground. On physical exam he has an obvious deformity to the right distal tibia but the skin and soft tissues remain intact. He has a moderate amount of swelling around the distal tibia and his distal pulses are intact. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in figures 1 and 2. He smokes at least one pack of cigarettes daily but is otherwise healthy and denies taking any prescription medications. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    A tibial pilon fracture (also known as a tibial plafond fracture) is a distal tibial fracture commonly associated with comminution, intra-articular extension, and soft tissue compromise. Pilon fractures are often a result of a high energy axial force on the leg such as a fall from a significant height or a motor vehicle accident. Initial diagnostic work-up includes x-rays to include the entire tibia and foot/ankle. CT is also critical in determining articular involvement and preoperative planning. CT is often performed after an external fixator is placed as pulling the fracture to length can shift the fracture. Pilon fractures frequently have significant soft tissue swelling and injury (fracture blisters, skin breakdown) which leads to high complications rates when these fractures are treated with early open reduction and internal fixation. A common treatment protocol for high energy, comminuted, and displaced pilon fractures includes closed reduction with placement of an external fixator for initial restoration of length and alignment. Once the soft tissue swelling has diminished and all fracture blisters, or open wounds have healed, definitive open reduction and internal fixation can be performed. ORIF performed around the 2 week mark after external fixation results in improved surgical wound complications. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Kottmeier, Stephen A. MD; Madison, Randall Drew MD. Pilon Fracture: Preventing Complications. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: September 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 18 – p 640-651
    2. Sirkin M, Sanders R, DiPasquale T, Herscovici D Jr. A staged protocol for soft tissue management in the treatment of complex pilon fractures. J Orthop Trauma. 1999 Feb;13(2):78-84.

    Incorrect

    A tibial pilon fracture (also known as a tibial plafond fracture) is a distal tibial fracture commonly associated with comminution, intra-articular extension, and soft tissue compromise. Pilon fractures are often a result of a high energy axial force on the leg such as a fall from a significant height or a motor vehicle accident. Initial diagnostic work-up includes x-rays to include the entire tibia and foot/ankle. CT is also critical in determining articular involvement and preoperative planning. CT is often performed after an external fixator is placed as pulling the fracture to length can shift the fracture. Pilon fractures frequently have significant soft tissue swelling and injury (fracture blisters, skin breakdown) which leads to high complications rates when these fractures are treated with early open reduction and internal fixation. A common treatment protocol for high energy, comminuted, and displaced pilon fractures includes closed reduction with placement of an external fixator for initial restoration of length and alignment. Once the soft tissue swelling has diminished and all fracture blisters, or open wounds have healed, definitive open reduction and internal fixation can be performed. ORIF performed around the 2 week mark after external fixation results in improved surgical wound complications. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Kottmeier, Stephen A. MD; Madison, Randall Drew MD. Pilon Fracture: Preventing Complications. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: September 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 18 – p 640-651
    2. Sirkin M, Sanders R, DiPasquale T, Herscovici D Jr. A staged protocol for soft tissue management in the treatment of complex pilon fractures. J Orthop Trauma. 1999 Feb;13(2):78-84.

  31. Question 31 of 86
    31. Question

    A 48-year-old female presents to your office with a 6-month history of heel pain. The pain is worse in the morning and is aggravated throughout the day by repetitive walking on cement floors at work. On physical exam she has tenderness over the plantar fascia and the plantar heel. Figure 1 shows a lateral x-ray of the affected heel. The patient comments on the calcaneal heel spur seen on her x-ray. Which statement is true regarding the heel spur?

    Correct

    Heel pain is one of the most common musculoskeletal complaints and up to 81% of cases are caused by plantar fasciitis. A calcaneal heel spur is a common finding on lateral radiographs in patients with plantar fasciitis and often a trigger for an orthopedic referral. However, there is no direct correlation between a heel spur and plantar fasciitis. A plantar heel spur is found is 12% of the population and far fewer ever develop plantar fasciitis. The development of a heel spur is thought to be multifactorial and no caused by plantar fasciitis. Factors such as repetitive stress to the heel, tight plantar fascia, and a genetic predisposition for bone spur formation (patients with osteoarthritis) are thought to play a role. Obesity is a strong risk factor for developing chronic heel pain and calcaneal spurs. Calcaneal heel spurs also increase in frequency with advanced age (98% of patients are over 40), which is thought to be due to the general tendency of ligament ossification with aging. The majority of patients with heel pain and spurs do well with conservative treatment including stretching, ice, NSAIDS, night splints, immobilization, steroid injections, and shock wave therapy (treatment usually progresses in that order). Surgical release of the plantar fascia and excision of the heel spur may be considered in chronic cases, however heel spur excision alone is not a surgical option as the spur is not the etiology of heel pain. 1,2
    Answer A.

    References
    1. Moroney, Paul J., et al. “The conundrum of calcaneal spurs: do they matter?.” Foot & Ankle Specialist 7.2 (2014): 95-101.
    2. Kirkpatrick, Joshua, Omid Yassaie, and Seyed Ali Mirjalili. “The plantar calcaneal spur: a review of anatomy, histology, etiology and key associations.” Journal of anatomy 230.6 (2017): 743-751.

    Incorrect

    Heel pain is one of the most common musculoskeletal complaints and up to 81% of cases are caused by plantar fasciitis. A calcaneal heel spur is a common finding on lateral radiographs in patients with plantar fasciitis and often a trigger for an orthopedic referral. However, there is no direct correlation between a heel spur and plantar fasciitis. A plantar heel spur is found is 12% of the population and far fewer ever develop plantar fasciitis. The development of a heel spur is thought to be multifactorial and no caused by plantar fasciitis. Factors such as repetitive stress to the heel, tight plantar fascia, and a genetic predisposition for bone spur formation (patients with osteoarthritis) are thought to play a role. Obesity is a strong risk factor for developing chronic heel pain and calcaneal spurs. Calcaneal heel spurs also increase in frequency with advanced age (98% of patients are over 40), which is thought to be due to the general tendency of ligament ossification with aging. The majority of patients with heel pain and spurs do well with conservative treatment including stretching, ice, NSAIDS, night splints, immobilization, steroid injections, and shock wave therapy (treatment usually progresses in that order). Surgical release of the plantar fascia and excision of the heel spur may be considered in chronic cases, however heel spur excision alone is not a surgical option as the spur is not the etiology of heel pain. 1,2
    Answer A.

    References
    1. Moroney, Paul J., et al. “The conundrum of calcaneal spurs: do they matter?.” Foot & Ankle Specialist 7.2 (2014): 95-101.
    2. Kirkpatrick, Joshua, Omid Yassaie, and Seyed Ali Mirjalili. “The plantar calcaneal spur: a review of anatomy, histology, etiology and key associations.” Journal of anatomy 230.6 (2017): 743-751.

  32. Question 32 of 86
    32. Question


    A 14 year old female presents to your office with left knee pain after a non-contact twisting injury during a soccer game 2 days ago. She was making a cutting maneuver and the knee buckled. She felt a pop and was unable to bear weight on the knee after the injury. On physical exam she has a moderate knee effusion with a positive Lachman’s test. Sagittal MRI (figure 1) shows a proximal ACL rupture. The patient’s mom mentioned she heard some patients are having ACL repairs instead of reconstruction. Which statement is true regarding ACL repair?

    Correct

    Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is the gold standard treatment option for patients who sustain an ACL tear. The ACL has a poor blood supply and ruptures are unlikely to heal with the same stability as its original form. This is why ACL repair options have failed in the past. The ACL fails to form a provisional scaffold between the two torn ends of the ACL which is critical for wound site healing. The knee joint is lubricated by a continuous flow of synovial fluid which his thought to inhibit ACL healing by getting in-between torn ends preventing healing tissue from forming. Unlike the ACL, the extra-articular MCL forms a scaffold between torn ends resulting in high rates of healing. More recent studies over the last 10 years have started to show primarily ACL repair in select patients may be as effective as ACL reconstruction. The patients age, activity level, and location of the tear are all factors in determining if a patient is a repair candidate. Current data shows that repairs are more likely to fail in patients under 18 compared to patients over 30. Also, patients who are active, particularly in running and cutting sports, are at a much higher risk of failure and repair should be avoided in these patients. Proximal ACL tears seem to be more amenable to repair than midsubstance and distal tears. 1,2
    Answer C

    References
    1. Murray MM. Current status and potential of primary ACL repair. Clinics in sports medicine. 2009 Jan 1;28(1):51-61.
    2. Gee, MAJ Shawn M. MD; Peterson, CPT David R. MD; Zhou, MAJ Liang MD; Bottoni, Craig R. MD Anterior Cruciate Ligament Repair: Historical Perspective, Indications, Techniques, and Outcomes, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: December 1, 2020 – Volume 28 – Issue 23 – p 963-971

    Incorrect

    Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is the gold standard treatment option for patients who sustain an ACL tear. The ACL has a poor blood supply and ruptures are unlikely to heal with the same stability as its original form. This is why ACL repair options have failed in the past. The ACL fails to form a provisional scaffold between the two torn ends of the ACL which is critical for wound site healing. The knee joint is lubricated by a continuous flow of synovial fluid which his thought to inhibit ACL healing by getting in-between torn ends preventing healing tissue from forming. Unlike the ACL, the extra-articular MCL forms a scaffold between torn ends resulting in high rates of healing. More recent studies over the last 10 years have started to show primarily ACL repair in select patients may be as effective as ACL reconstruction. The patients age, activity level, and location of the tear are all factors in determining if a patient is a repair candidate. Current data shows that repairs are more likely to fail in patients under 18 compared to patients over 30. Also, patients who are active, particularly in running and cutting sports, are at a much higher risk of failure and repair should be avoided in these patients. Proximal ACL tears seem to be more amenable to repair than midsubstance and distal tears. 1,2
    Answer C

    References
    1. Murray MM. Current status and potential of primary ACL repair. Clinics in sports medicine. 2009 Jan 1;28(1):51-61.
    2. Gee, MAJ Shawn M. MD; Peterson, CPT David R. MD; Zhou, MAJ Liang MD; Bottoni, Craig R. MD Anterior Cruciate Ligament Repair: Historical Perspective, Indications, Techniques, and Outcomes, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: December 1, 2020 – Volume 28 – Issue 23 – p 963-971

  33. Question 33 of 86
    33. Question


    A 61 year old male presents to your office with bruising and deformity to this right arm for 2 days.
    He admits to 3-4 months of shoulder pain when lifting and pulling objects with his right shoulder. He was lifting a weight off the ground 2 days ago when he felt a sharp pop in the shoulder. He had significant pain at the time and has noticed bruising and a deformity at his biceps muscle since. The shoulder pain has improved, however, and he can now move the shoulder with near painless motion. Images of the right arm are shown in figures 1 and 2. His left arm shows him flexing his left biceps with a normal muscle contour (figure3). What is the next best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    The patient has an obvious rupture of the proximal biceps tendon consistent with his history and physical exam. The proximal biceps muscle has two attachment sites proximally via the long head and short head: the long head of the biceps tendon attaches inside the shoulder at the superior glenoid and the short head attaches at the coracoid process outside the shoulder joint. The long head of the biceps can be a pain generator as the proximal tendon can degenerate and tear with time and repetitive shoulder motion. Symptoms often start with partial tearing of the tendon and, as the tear increases, the tendon can spontaneously tear of its attachment on the labrum. The muscle belly then retracts distally causing the classic Popeye deformity. It is important to educate patients that rupture of the long head of the biceps does not result in any weakness or disability, despite the deformity. The proximal biceps is still attached via the short head of the biceps tendon on the coracoid. Surgical repair including exploration and tenodesis is only considered for cosmetic reasons and is rarely performed. Some patients may be relieved to hear that John Elway, NFL quarterback for the Denver Broncos won two Superbowl’s AFTER he tore his proximal biceps (he had a Popeye deformity as well and was treated with observation and return to football activities to tolerance). 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Frank, Rachel M. MD; Cotter, Eric J. BS; Strauss, Eric J. MD; Jazrawi, Laith M. MD; Romeo, Anthony A. MD. Management of Biceps Tendon Pathology: From the Glenoid to the Radial Tuberosity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: February 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 4 – p e77-e89
    2. Gill TJ. CORR Insights®: Does Biceps Tenotomy or Tenodesis Have Better Results After Surgery? A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis. Clin Orthop Relat Res. 2021 Jul 1;479(7):1574-1576. doi: 10.1097/CORR.0000000000001743. PMID: 34077395; PMCID: PMC8208415.

    Incorrect

    The patient has an obvious rupture of the proximal biceps tendon consistent with his history and physical exam. The proximal biceps muscle has two attachment sites proximally via the long head and short head: the long head of the biceps tendon attaches inside the shoulder at the superior glenoid and the short head attaches at the coracoid process outside the shoulder joint. The long head of the biceps can be a pain generator as the proximal tendon can degenerate and tear with time and repetitive shoulder motion. Symptoms often start with partial tearing of the tendon and, as the tear increases, the tendon can spontaneously tear of its attachment on the labrum. The muscle belly then retracts distally causing the classic Popeye deformity. It is important to educate patients that rupture of the long head of the biceps does not result in any weakness or disability, despite the deformity. The proximal biceps is still attached via the short head of the biceps tendon on the coracoid. Surgical repair including exploration and tenodesis is only considered for cosmetic reasons and is rarely performed. Some patients may be relieved to hear that John Elway, NFL quarterback for the Denver Broncos won two Superbowl’s AFTER he tore his proximal biceps (he had a Popeye deformity as well and was treated with observation and return to football activities to tolerance). 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Frank, Rachel M. MD; Cotter, Eric J. BS; Strauss, Eric J. MD; Jazrawi, Laith M. MD; Romeo, Anthony A. MD. Management of Biceps Tendon Pathology: From the Glenoid to the Radial Tuberosity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: February 15, 2018 – Volume 26 – Issue 4 – p e77-e89
    2. Gill TJ. CORR Insights®: Does Biceps Tenotomy or Tenodesis Have Better Results After Surgery? A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis. Clin Orthop Relat Res. 2021 Jul 1;479(7):1574-1576. doi: 10.1097/CORR.0000000000001743. PMID: 34077395; PMCID: PMC8208415.

  34. Question 34 of 86
    34. Question


    A 45-year-old male presents to your office with severe left hip pain and difficulty flexing his hip. Two days ago he fell on the ice and he thinks the hip hyperextended. On physical exam he has tenderness to palpation over the anterior inferior iliac spine that is made worse with resisted hip flexion. AP x-ray of the left hip shows an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (figure 1). Which tendon below was most likely injured?

    Correct

    The pelvis acts as an attachment site for the hip flexor muscles. Hip flexors include the psoas which attaches to the lesser trochanter, the rectus femoris which attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), and the sartorius which attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine. The muscles of the quadriceps include the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius. Of the four muscles of the quadriceps, the rectus femoris is the most commonly injured and the only muscle that crosses the hip and knee joints. Avulsion of the AIIS can occur with a sudden forceful contraction of the quadriceps including a fall that hyperextends the hip joint or abrupt kicking motion. Diagnostic work-up includes AP hip x-rays which will show the classic avulsion pattern. MRI may be warranted if there is no obvious bony involvement or concomitant injury is suspected. Rectus femoris avulsion injuries are almost always treated non-operatively with a period of rest by avoiding hip flexion. Pain and function usually improves at 6-8 weeks and patients can often return to sports or heavy labor during this time. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Begum FA, Kayani B, Chang JS, Tansey RJ, Haddad FS. The management of proximal rectus femoris avulsion injuries. EFORT Open Rev. 2020 Nov 13;5(11):828-834.
    2. Knapik DM, Trasolini NA, Diaz CC, Chahla J, Forsythe B. JBJS Rev, 9(7):e20.00269

    Incorrect

    The pelvis acts as an attachment site for the hip flexor muscles. Hip flexors include the psoas which attaches to the lesser trochanter, the rectus femoris which attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), and the sartorius which attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine. The muscles of the quadriceps include the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius. Of the four muscles of the quadriceps, the rectus femoris is the most commonly injured and the only muscle that crosses the hip and knee joints. Avulsion of the AIIS can occur with a sudden forceful contraction of the quadriceps including a fall that hyperextends the hip joint or abrupt kicking motion. Diagnostic work-up includes AP hip x-rays which will show the classic avulsion pattern. MRI may be warranted if there is no obvious bony involvement or concomitant injury is suspected. Rectus femoris avulsion injuries are almost always treated non-operatively with a period of rest by avoiding hip flexion. Pain and function usually improves at 6-8 weeks and patients can often return to sports or heavy labor during this time. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Begum FA, Kayani B, Chang JS, Tansey RJ, Haddad FS. The management of proximal rectus femoris avulsion injuries. EFORT Open Rev. 2020 Nov 13;5(11):828-834.
    2. Knapik DM, Trasolini NA, Diaz CC, Chahla J, Forsythe B. JBJS Rev, 9(7):e20.00269

  35. Question 35 of 86
    35. Question


    A 62 year old male presents to your office with several months of right shoulder pain. The pain is made worse with reaching over head and he feels the shoulder is now weak. He has failed two
    courses of formal physical therapy and received cortisone injections with minimal short-term improvement. On examination he has a positive drop arm and weakness with forward flexion in the scapular plane. AP radiograph of the right shoulder is shown in figure 1. Coronal and sagittal MRI images are shown in figure 2 and 3, respectively. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    This patient presents with right shoulder arthritis and a large, retracted rotator cuff tear. The AP x-ray of the shoulder shows a decreased acromiohumeral interval indicating superior migration of the humeral head. The coronal MRI image shows fatty atrophy of the supraspinatus muscle indicating the rotator cuff is irreparable. Superior migration of the humeral head, glenohumeral arthritis, and an irreparable rotator cuff describe a condition called rotator cuff arthropathy, which is an indication for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. A traditional total shoulder arthroplasty requires an intact rotator cuff to function properly. A reverse prosthesis moves the center of rotation inferiorly and medially, which allows the deltoid to provide forward flexion of the shoulder. The benefit of a reverse total shoulder is primary pain relief, and to a lesser extent, improved shoulder abduction, as the deltoid replaces the function of a deficient rotator cuff. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Familiari F, Rojas J, Doral MN, Huri G, McFarland EG. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. EFORT open reviews. 2018 Feb;3(2):58.
    2. Gerber C, Pennington SD, Nyffeler RW. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2009 May 1;17(5):284-95.

    Incorrect

    This patient presents with right shoulder arthritis and a large, retracted rotator cuff tear. The AP x-ray of the shoulder shows a decreased acromiohumeral interval indicating superior migration of the humeral head. The coronal MRI image shows fatty atrophy of the supraspinatus muscle indicating the rotator cuff is irreparable. Superior migration of the humeral head, glenohumeral arthritis, and an irreparable rotator cuff describe a condition called rotator cuff arthropathy, which is an indication for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. A traditional total shoulder arthroplasty requires an intact rotator cuff to function properly. A reverse prosthesis moves the center of rotation inferiorly and medially, which allows the deltoid to provide forward flexion of the shoulder. The benefit of a reverse total shoulder is primary pain relief, and to a lesser extent, improved shoulder abduction, as the deltoid replaces the function of a deficient rotator cuff. 1,2
    Answer D.

    References
    1. Familiari F, Rojas J, Doral MN, Huri G, McFarland EG. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. EFORT open reviews. 2018 Feb;3(2):58.
    2. Gerber C, Pennington SD, Nyffeler RW. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2009 May 1;17(5):284-95.

  36. Question 36 of 86
    36. Question

    A 68 year old female presents to your office with lower back and buttock pain after a fall last week. She slipped on ice and fell directly on her butt. She denies any bowel or bladder changes or pain radiating down her legs. She has full strength in her lower extremities but is having difficulty walking. At baseline she walks independently but requires a walker to get around now. AP x-ray of the sacrum shows a nondisplaced sacral fracture on the left (figure 1). What is the next best step in treatment for this fracture?

    Correct

    The patient has a zone 1 sacral fracture (fracture lateral to the foramina). Sacral insufficiency and non-displaced fractures are common in older patients with poor bone quality. The initial diagnostic study of choice includes x-ray views of the sacrum. CT is best study if a fracture is unclear on x-ray or to determine the amount of displacement and/or instability. MRI is the study of choice to identify sacral insufficiency fractures. Nondisplaced sacral fractures are inherently stable and can be treated successfully with immediate weight-bearing. Gait assistance with a walker or crutches may be necessary for a short time period but prolonged immobilization should be avoided. Sacral fractures in patients of advanced age or poor quality may take up to 4 months for symptom resolution. Sacral fractures that are associated with >1 cm of displacement or have neurologic deficits require surgical treatment. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Mehta S, Auerbach JD, Born CT, Chin KR. Sacral fractures. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2006 Nov 1;14(12):656-65.
    2. Sacral fractures. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed

    Incorrect

    The patient has a zone 1 sacral fracture (fracture lateral to the foramina). Sacral insufficiency and non-displaced fractures are common in older patients with poor bone quality. The initial diagnostic study of choice includes x-ray views of the sacrum. CT is best study if a fracture is unclear on x-ray or to determine the amount of displacement and/or instability. MRI is the study of choice to identify sacral insufficiency fractures. Nondisplaced sacral fractures are inherently stable and can be treated successfully with immediate weight-bearing. Gait assistance with a walker or crutches may be necessary for a short time period but prolonged immobilization should be avoided. Sacral fractures in patients of advanced age or poor quality may take up to 4 months for symptom resolution. Sacral fractures that are associated with >1 cm of displacement or have neurologic deficits require surgical treatment. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Mehta S, Auerbach JD, Born CT, Chin KR. Sacral fractures. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2006 Nov 1;14(12):656-65.
    2. Sacral fractures. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed

  37. Question 37 of 86
    37. Question


    A 46 year old male presents to your office with a one week history of left wrist pain after a work related injury. He tripped and fell on his outstretched arm, landing directly on his hand with his palm up. A few hours after the injury he noticed pain when lifting objects and swelling developed over the dorsal aspect of his hand. On physical exam of the wrist he has mild synovitis to the wrist joint and dorsal tenderness to palpation over the scapholunate interval. He has limited range of motion of the wrist with 30 degrees of flexion and 40 degrees of extension. Bilateral clenched fist x-rays (figure 1) shows a symmetric scapholunate interval compared to the opposite side. Wrist MRI (coronal MRI image figure 2) shows some synovitis throughout the wrist and a partial tear of the scapholunate ligament. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    The scapholunate (SL) ligament is an interosseous structure that stabilizes and connects the scaphoid and lunate bones during wrist motion. The SL ligament has three parts: the dorsal (strongest part of ligament, intermediary, and volar. Injury to the SL ligament is commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand which may cause dorsal wrist pain and swelling. SL ligament tears are often missed as AP radiographs are commonly for the injury. A clench fist view x-ray is a dynamic study to help diagnose an SL injury and will show widening of the SL interval. Bilateral clenched fist views are recommended as they consistently pick up SL gaps (if present) and subtle changes. An SL gap >3mm is considered abnormal and unstable. MRI is the best study to diagnose SL ligament tears, and determine the extent of injury, which can range from partial, complete repairable, and complete irreparable tears. Missed SL ligament injuries can progress from a partial tear to complete tear without timely treatment, leading to wrist instability and progressive arthritis. Non-operative treatment for nondisplaced SL injuries is recommended and may include casting or splinting the wrist. Complete tears on MRI and SL widening seen on dynamic x-ray should be treated operatively. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Schmitz MW, Morrell NT, Jacobs RC. Diagnosis and Surgical Treatment of Acute Scapholunate Ligament Injuries. JBJS JOPA, 9(2):e20.00039
    2. Pappou IP, Basel J, Deal DN. Scapholunate ligament injuries: a review of current concepts. Hand. 2013 Jun;8(2):146-56.

    Incorrect

    The scapholunate (SL) ligament is an interosseous structure that stabilizes and connects the scaphoid and lunate bones during wrist motion. The SL ligament has three parts: the dorsal (strongest part of ligament, intermediary, and volar. Injury to the SL ligament is commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand which may cause dorsal wrist pain and swelling. SL ligament tears are often missed as AP radiographs are commonly for the injury. A clench fist view x-ray is a dynamic study to help diagnose an SL injury and will show widening of the SL interval. Bilateral clenched fist views are recommended as they consistently pick up SL gaps (if present) and subtle changes. An SL gap >3mm is considered abnormal and unstable. MRI is the best study to diagnose SL ligament tears, and determine the extent of injury, which can range from partial, complete repairable, and complete irreparable tears. Missed SL ligament injuries can progress from a partial tear to complete tear without timely treatment, leading to wrist instability and progressive arthritis. Non-operative treatment for nondisplaced SL injuries is recommended and may include casting or splinting the wrist. Complete tears on MRI and SL widening seen on dynamic x-ray should be treated operatively. 1,2
    Answer A.
    References
    1. Schmitz MW, Morrell NT, Jacobs RC. Diagnosis and Surgical Treatment of Acute Scapholunate Ligament Injuries. JBJS JOPA, 9(2):e20.00039
    2. Pappou IP, Basel J, Deal DN. Scapholunate ligament injuries: a review of current concepts. Hand. 2013 Jun;8(2):146-56.

  38. Question 38 of 86
    38. Question


    A 6 year old female presents to the ED with severe right elbow pain and deformity after a fall from the monkey bars two hours earlier. Her skin is intact and she is unable to move the elbow but can move he fingers and wrist. Her right hand is pink and warm but she has no palpable radial or ulnar pulses. AP and lateral x-rays are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step treatment option?

    Correct

    A detailed neurovascular exam is critical after supracondylar humerus fractures. Radial and ulnar artery pulses should be palpated or found with doppler ultrasound. A pink warm hand can be present in the absence of a pulse which may be a sign of a vascular spasm or entrapment. A cold pale hand with capillary refill >2 seconds represents a poorly perfused hand. Closed reduction and percutaneous fixation in the operating room should be performed urgently in patients with decreased perfusion to avoid an ischemic injury. Closed reduction almost always restores vascular perfusion. Angiography is not indicated as closed reduction successfully restores perfusion. In the case of absent pulses after closed reduction, open exploration of the antecubital fossa may be necessary. The most common nerve to be injured with pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures is the anterior interosseous nerve. Patients with anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) injuries will not be able to flex the thumb IP joint or the DIP of the index finger (can’t make an “OK” sign). AIN injuries almost always recover over time (>90%) with an average of 49 days to complete resolution. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Howard, Andrew MD; Mulpuri, Kishore MD; Abel, Mark F. MD; Braun, Stuart MD; Bueche, Matthew MD; Epps, Howard MD; Hosalkar, Harish MD; Mehlman, Charles T. DO, MPH; Scherl, Susan MD; Goldberg, Michael MD; Turkelson, Charles M. PhD; Wies, Janet L. MPH; Boyer, Kevin The Treatment of Pediatric Supracondylar Humerus Fractures, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 2012 – Volume 20 – Issue 5 – p 320-327
    2. Barrett, Kody K.; Skaggs, David L.; Sawyer, Jeffrey R.; Andras, Lindsay; Moisan, Alice; Goodbody, Christine; Flynn, John M. Supracondylar Humeral Fractures with Isolated Anterior Interosseous Nerve Injuries: Is Urgent Treatment Necessary? J Bone Joint Surg Am, 96(21):1793-1797 | Scientific Articles | November 05, 2014

    Incorrect

    A detailed neurovascular exam is critical after supracondylar humerus fractures. Radial and ulnar artery pulses should be palpated or found with doppler ultrasound. A pink warm hand can be present in the absence of a pulse which may be a sign of a vascular spasm or entrapment. A cold pale hand with capillary refill >2 seconds represents a poorly perfused hand. Closed reduction and percutaneous fixation in the operating room should be performed urgently in patients with decreased perfusion to avoid an ischemic injury. Closed reduction almost always restores vascular perfusion. Angiography is not indicated as closed reduction successfully restores perfusion. In the case of absent pulses after closed reduction, open exploration of the antecubital fossa may be necessary. The most common nerve to be injured with pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures is the anterior interosseous nerve. Patients with anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) injuries will not be able to flex the thumb IP joint or the DIP of the index finger (can’t make an “OK” sign). AIN injuries almost always recover over time (>90%) with an average of 49 days to complete resolution. 1,2
    Answer C.
    References
    1. Howard, Andrew MD; Mulpuri, Kishore MD; Abel, Mark F. MD; Braun, Stuart MD; Bueche, Matthew MD; Epps, Howard MD; Hosalkar, Harish MD; Mehlman, Charles T. DO, MPH; Scherl, Susan MD; Goldberg, Michael MD; Turkelson, Charles M. PhD; Wies, Janet L. MPH; Boyer, Kevin The Treatment of Pediatric Supracondylar Humerus Fractures, Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 2012 – Volume 20 – Issue 5 – p 320-327
    2. Barrett, Kody K.; Skaggs, David L.; Sawyer, Jeffrey R.; Andras, Lindsay; Moisan, Alice; Goodbody, Christine; Flynn, John M. Supracondylar Humeral Fractures with Isolated Anterior Interosseous Nerve Injuries: Is Urgent Treatment Necessary? J Bone Joint Surg Am, 96(21):1793-1797 | Scientific Articles | November 05, 2014

  39. Question 39 of 86
    39. Question


    A 16 year old female presents to your office with right elbow pain after a fall 2 days ago. She was walking to the bus when she tripped on ice and landed on the elbow. The pain has improved significantly but her mom wanted her to be checked out. She denies a history of numbness or cold insensitivity to the hand and forearm. On physical exam she has no swelling or bruising to the elbow and slight tenderness to palpation over the olecranon. X-rays of the elbow show no evidence of a fracture, however she has a hook-shaped bony mass on the supracondylar aspect of her proximal humerus shown in Figure 1. What x-ray feature of this supracondylar process helps distinguish the bony mass from an osteochondroma?

    Correct

    Benign bone growth that extends outward from normal bone (exostosis) are often seen incidentally on x-ray. The most common exophytic lesion diagnosed incidentally on x-ray is an osteochondroma. The classic findings of an osteochondroma include a pedunculated bony lesion in the metaphyseal region that projects away from the nearby joint. A supracondylar process (or spur) on the anteromedial aspect of the humerus (about 5 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle) has similar radiographic findings and can be confused with an osteochondroma. A fibrous band of tissue known as the ligament of Struthers attaches to the process and can cause symptomatic compression of the of the median nerve and/or brachial artery. The lesion should be differentiated from an osteochondroma. The patient’s images show the exostosis pointing toward the joint whereas an osteochondroma generally points away. The humeral cortex is continuous with an osteochondroma cortex whereas the humeral cortex is intact with a supracondylar process. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Mutnuru PC, Perubhotla LM. Rare Mimickers of Exostosis: A Case Series. J Clin Diagn Res. 2016 Jul;10(7):TR06-7. doi: 10.7860/JCDR/2016/18794.8193. Epub 2016 Jul 1. PMID: 27630926; PMCID: PMC5020238.
    2. Shivaleela C, Suresh BS, Kumar GV, Lakshmiprabha S. Morphological study of the supracondylar process of the humerus and its clinical implications. Journal of clinical and diagnostic research: JCDR. 2014 Jan;8(1):1.

    Incorrect

    Benign bone growth that extends outward from normal bone (exostosis) are often seen incidentally on x-ray. The most common exophytic lesion diagnosed incidentally on x-ray is an osteochondroma. The classic findings of an osteochondroma include a pedunculated bony lesion in the metaphyseal region that projects away from the nearby joint. A supracondylar process (or spur) on the anteromedial aspect of the humerus (about 5 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle) has similar radiographic findings and can be confused with an osteochondroma. A fibrous band of tissue known as the ligament of Struthers attaches to the process and can cause symptomatic compression of the of the median nerve and/or brachial artery. The lesion should be differentiated from an osteochondroma. The patient’s images show the exostosis pointing toward the joint whereas an osteochondroma generally points away. The humeral cortex is continuous with an osteochondroma cortex whereas the humeral cortex is intact with a supracondylar process. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Mutnuru PC, Perubhotla LM. Rare Mimickers of Exostosis: A Case Series. J Clin Diagn Res. 2016 Jul;10(7):TR06-7. doi: 10.7860/JCDR/2016/18794.8193. Epub 2016 Jul 1. PMID: 27630926; PMCID: PMC5020238.
    2. Shivaleela C, Suresh BS, Kumar GV, Lakshmiprabha S. Morphological study of the supracondylar process of the humerus and its clinical implications. Journal of clinical and diagnostic research: JCDR. 2014 Jan;8(1):1.

  40. Question 40 of 86
    40. Question


    A 38-year-old female presents to the office with 1 year of right ankle pain. She denies any known injury or precipitating event. She has a history of a brain tumor 2 years ago treated with brain surgery and high dose steroids for over 4 months. On physical exam the ankle has no abnormalities and mild generalized pain with range of motion at the talus. AP and lateral radiographs (figures 1 and 2) show no abnormalities of the ankle. Sagittal MRI image (figure 3) shows there to be edema in the talus consistent with avascular necrosis. There are no signs of collapse of the ankle joint and the avascular changes appear to be more in the head of the talus. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Steroid induced osteonecrosis is a condition that may occur in patients on long term systemic corticosteroid therapy. The exact pathophysiology is unclear, however steroids can disrupt the blood supply to bone leading to bone matrix and articular cartilage degeneration. Steroid induced osteonecrosis can cause joint destruction which accounts for 10% of all total joints performed annually in the Unites States. The most common location of osteonecrosis is the hips and the talus is actually quite uncommon. Higher dosage of steroids and a longer treatment duration increases the risk of developing osteonecrosis. Most patients with early disease (no talar collapse) are treated conservatively with a period of non-weight bearing (up to 3-6 months in some cases) to, in theory, offload the talus to help revascularize. Bracing and extracorporeal shock wave therapy have been used to help revascularize the talus if conservative treatments fail. Surgical procedures such as a core decompression and bone grafting have been used to salvage the talus before a larger procedure such as a fusion and talus replacement is needed. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Gross CE, Haughom B, Chahal J, Holmes Jr GB. Treatments for avascular necrosis of the talus: a systematic review. Foot & ankle specialist. 2014 Oct;7(5):387-97.
    2. Powell C, Chang C, Naguwa SM, Cheema G, Gershwin ME. Steroid induced osteonecrosis: An analysis of steroid dosing risk. Autoimmun Rev. 2010 Sep;9(11):721-43. doi: 10.1016/j.autrev.2010.06.007. Epub 2010 Jul 9. PMID: 20621176; PMCID: PMC7105235.

    Incorrect

    Steroid induced osteonecrosis is a condition that may occur in patients on long term systemic corticosteroid therapy. The exact pathophysiology is unclear, however steroids can disrupt the blood supply to bone leading to bone matrix and articular cartilage degeneration. Steroid induced osteonecrosis can cause joint destruction which accounts for 10% of all total joints performed annually in the Unites States. The most common location of osteonecrosis is the hips and the talus is actually quite uncommon. Higher dosage of steroids and a longer treatment duration increases the risk of developing osteonecrosis. Most patients with early disease (no talar collapse) are treated conservatively with a period of non-weight bearing (up to 3-6 months in some cases) to, in theory, offload the talus to help revascularize. Bracing and extracorporeal shock wave therapy have been used to help revascularize the talus if conservative treatments fail. Surgical procedures such as a core decompression and bone grafting have been used to salvage the talus before a larger procedure such as a fusion and talus replacement is needed. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Gross CE, Haughom B, Chahal J, Holmes Jr GB. Treatments for avascular necrosis of the talus: a systematic review. Foot & ankle specialist. 2014 Oct;7(5):387-97.
    2. Powell C, Chang C, Naguwa SM, Cheema G, Gershwin ME. Steroid induced osteonecrosis: An analysis of steroid dosing risk. Autoimmun Rev. 2010 Sep;9(11):721-43. doi: 10.1016/j.autrev.2010.06.007. Epub 2010 Jul 9. PMID: 20621176; PMCID: PMC7105235.

  41. Question 41 of 86
    41. Question


    A 37-year-old male presents to your office with a one month history of lower back pain that radiates to the right buttock. He believes the pain started after he reached for something on the floor and felt and strain in the lower back. He denies any changes in bowel or bladder function. On physical exam he has a mild positive straight leg raise on the right with motor and sensation completely intact in the lower extremities. He has mild paraspinous muscle spasm and tenderness to palpation on the lower back. X-rays of the lumbar spine show mild degenerative changes in the lumbar spine without fracture. MRI shows a small disc herniation at L5-S1 causing impingement on the right sided sacral nerve roots. MRI also shows a right sided Tarlov cyst at S3 measuring 2.5 by 1.8 cm (shown in sagittal MRI image Figure 1). What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Tarlov cysts, or perineural cysts, are found within the spinal canal generally at the sacral level. The cysts grow within the nerve roots and the cyst walls are made of neural tissue. The cysts communicate with the subarachnoid space and are filled with cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). The general theory is that the cyst has a one way valve that allows CSF to enter but not leave. Most of these cysts will remain small and asymptomatic (they occur in up to 9% of the population) but some can grow large enough to cause local nerve compression. Larger cysts greater than 1.5 cm are more likely to be associated with symptoms of nerve room impingement such as radicular pain, paresthesia’s, and bowel or bladder dysfunction. MRI is the best study to view a Tarlov cyst, followed by CT myelography to help demonstrate communication of the cyst with CSF. The majority of Tarlov cysts are clinically irrelevant and radicular pain is much more likely to be caused by other pathology such as a lumbar disc herniation and lumbar stenosis. Initial treatment is conservative unless the patient presents with bowel or bladder dysfunction. Surgical excision is reserved for patients with have progressive neurological deficits or severe pain that has failed conservative treatment. 1,2
    Answer A.

    References
    1. Langdown AJ, Grundy JR, Birch NC. The clinical relevance of Tarlov cysts. Clinical Spine Surgery. 2005 Feb 1;18(1):29-33.
    2. Acosta FL, Quinones-Hinojosa A, Schmidt MH, Weinstein PR. Diagnosis and management of sacral Tarlov cysts: case report and review of the literature. Neurosurgical focus. 2003 Aug 1;15(2):1-7.

    Incorrect

    Tarlov cysts, or perineural cysts, are found within the spinal canal generally at the sacral level. The cysts grow within the nerve roots and the cyst walls are made of neural tissue. The cysts communicate with the subarachnoid space and are filled with cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). The general theory is that the cyst has a one way valve that allows CSF to enter but not leave. Most of these cysts will remain small and asymptomatic (they occur in up to 9% of the population) but some can grow large enough to cause local nerve compression. Larger cysts greater than 1.5 cm are more likely to be associated with symptoms of nerve room impingement such as radicular pain, paresthesia’s, and bowel or bladder dysfunction. MRI is the best study to view a Tarlov cyst, followed by CT myelography to help demonstrate communication of the cyst with CSF. The majority of Tarlov cysts are clinically irrelevant and radicular pain is much more likely to be caused by other pathology such as a lumbar disc herniation and lumbar stenosis. Initial treatment is conservative unless the patient presents with bowel or bladder dysfunction. Surgical excision is reserved for patients with have progressive neurological deficits or severe pain that has failed conservative treatment. 1,2
    Answer A.

    References
    1. Langdown AJ, Grundy JR, Birch NC. The clinical relevance of Tarlov cysts. Clinical Spine Surgery. 2005 Feb 1;18(1):29-33.
    2. Acosta FL, Quinones-Hinojosa A, Schmidt MH, Weinstein PR. Diagnosis and management of sacral Tarlov cysts: case report and review of the literature. Neurosurgical focus. 2003 Aug 1;15(2):1-7.

  42. Question 42 of 86
    42. Question

    A 66 year old female presents to your office with left knee pain for the last month. She denies having a known injury or precipitating event. The pain is located over the medial knee just over the medial femoral condyle. On physical exam she has pain to palpation medially over the medial femoral condyle and no laxity to the MCL. Pain is made worse with hyperflexion of the knee. AP x-ray (figure 1) shows ossification of the soft tissues just medial to the medial femoral condyle. What is this lesion called?

    Correct

    A Pellegrini-Stieda lesion is a distinct x-ray finding of ossification within the medial soft tissues adjacent to the medial femoral condyle. Most cases are asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray but those that are symptomatic are referred to as Pellegrini-Stieda syndrome. The ossification is thought to be caused by either an MCL avulsion injury, avulsion of the gastrocnemius muscle, or ossification of the adductor magnus insertion. Injury to this area is thought to cause an inflammatory cascade that leads to delayed ossification of the surrounding soft tissues. Symptoms of Pellegrini-Stieda syndrome include pain to palpation over the medial femoral condyle and worsening pain with full knee extension and flexion. The lesion can vary in shape and size, with the larger lesions generally being more symptomatic. Generally conservative treatment with ice, oral anti-inflammatories and rest offers a successfully outcome. Refractory cases can be considered for a local corticosteroid injection or surgical excision. Results of surgical excision vary with some studies showing a high recurrence rate. 1,2

    Answer A.
    References
    1. Weaver M. Pellegrini Stieda Disease. InStatPearls [Internet] 2021 Aug 12. StatPearls Publishing.
    2. Wiegerinck JI, Somford MP. Review of Stieda’s article (1908) on the Pellegrini-Stieda lesion. Journal of ISAKOS. 2016 Jul 1;1(4):214-8.

    Incorrect

    A Pellegrini-Stieda lesion is a distinct x-ray finding of ossification within the medial soft tissues adjacent to the medial femoral condyle. Most cases are asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray but those that are symptomatic are referred to as Pellegrini-Stieda syndrome. The ossification is thought to be caused by either an MCL avulsion injury, avulsion of the gastrocnemius muscle, or ossification of the adductor magnus insertion. Injury to this area is thought to cause an inflammatory cascade that leads to delayed ossification of the surrounding soft tissues. Symptoms of Pellegrini-Stieda syndrome include pain to palpation over the medial femoral condyle and worsening pain with full knee extension and flexion. The lesion can vary in shape and size, with the larger lesions generally being more symptomatic. Generally conservative treatment with ice, oral anti-inflammatories and rest offers a successfully outcome. Refractory cases can be considered for a local corticosteroid injection or surgical excision. Results of surgical excision vary with some studies showing a high recurrence rate. 1,2

    Answer A.
    References
    1. Weaver M. Pellegrini Stieda Disease. InStatPearls [Internet] 2021 Aug 12. StatPearls Publishing.
    2. Wiegerinck JI, Somford MP. Review of Stieda’s article (1908) on the Pellegrini-Stieda lesion. Journal of ISAKOS. 2016 Jul 1;1(4):214-8.

  43. Question 43 of 86
    43. Question


    A 9 year old presents to urgent care with an obvious deformity to his right thumb. He was playing football and fell down on the hand 2 hours earlier. He had immediate pain and deformity to the right thumb after the fall. AP and lateral x-rays of the thumb show a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint dislocation (figures 1 and 2). Post-reduction x-rays are shown in figures 3 and 4. Post-reduction exam of the thumb reveals no laxity with varus and valgus stress to the MCP joint. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The patient has a dorsally angulated thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint dislocation. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall on the hand causing hyperextension of the MCP joint. The classic x-ray finding is the proximal phalanx at 90 degrees from the metacarpal head. With an MCP joint dislocation, the volar plate avulses off the metacarpal neck and the collateral ligaments may be injured if rotation of the finger occurs. Thumb MCP joint dislocations can be irreducible if the volar plate, sesamoids, or flexor pollicis longus tendon become interposed dorsally in the joint. The reduction method includes dorsal to volar pressure to the proximal phalanx to push it over the metacarpal head. After a closed reduction is performed assessment of the collateral ligaments should be performed by applying a varus and valgus force to the MCP joint. Straight traction alone should be avoided to prevent entrapping the volar plate. The ideal treatment for reducible, stable dislocations has not been established. A dislocation with a stable reduction can be splinted with the MCP joint in slight flexion for 3-4 weeks. Prolonged immobilization beyond 4 weeks may result in permanent stiffness of the digit. A follow-up x-ray of the thumb in 1-2 weeks post reduction should be performed to confirm continued stability. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Kim JS, Hussain K, Higginbotham DO, Tsai AG. Management of thumb carpometacarpal joint dislocations: A systematic review. Journal of Orthopaedics. 2021 May 1;25:59-63.
    2. Dinh, Paul MD; Franklin, Adam MD; Hutchinson, Brian MD; Schnall, Stephen B. MD; Fassola, Isabella MD. Metacarpophalangeal Joint Dislocation. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 2009 – Volume 17 – Issue 5 – p 318-324

    Incorrect

    The patient has a dorsally angulated thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint dislocation. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall on the hand causing hyperextension of the MCP joint. The classic x-ray finding is the proximal phalanx at 90 degrees from the metacarpal head. With an MCP joint dislocation, the volar plate avulses off the metacarpal neck and the collateral ligaments may be injured if rotation of the finger occurs. Thumb MCP joint dislocations can be irreducible if the volar plate, sesamoids, or flexor pollicis longus tendon become interposed dorsally in the joint. The reduction method includes dorsal to volar pressure to the proximal phalanx to push it over the metacarpal head. After a closed reduction is performed assessment of the collateral ligaments should be performed by applying a varus and valgus force to the MCP joint. Straight traction alone should be avoided to prevent entrapping the volar plate. The ideal treatment for reducible, stable dislocations has not been established. A dislocation with a stable reduction can be splinted with the MCP joint in slight flexion for 3-4 weeks. Prolonged immobilization beyond 4 weeks may result in permanent stiffness of the digit. A follow-up x-ray of the thumb in 1-2 weeks post reduction should be performed to confirm continued stability. 1,2
    Answer B.
    References
    1. Kim JS, Hussain K, Higginbotham DO, Tsai AG. Management of thumb carpometacarpal joint dislocations: A systematic review. Journal of Orthopaedics. 2021 May 1;25:59-63.
    2. Dinh, Paul MD; Franklin, Adam MD; Hutchinson, Brian MD; Schnall, Stephen B. MD; Fassola, Isabella MD. Metacarpophalangeal Joint Dislocation. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: May 2009 – Volume 17 – Issue 5 – p 318-324

  44. Question 44 of 86
    44. Question


    A 34 year old female presents to your office with left thumb pain and instability for well over 4 years. She took a fall 4 years ago and landed on the thumb which started the pain. She ignored the injury after the fall and never sought treatment. The pain did improve after 4 weeks, but the thumb has never really felt stable since. She has increased pain with grasping objects such as turning a doorknob and picking up her young child. AP and lateral x-rays of the thumb are shown in figures 1 and 2. On physical exam she has significant laxity to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb (>30 degrees difference with valgus stress compared to right thumb). What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    The ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) provides stability at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint during tasks like grasping or pinching objects with the thumb. This patient presents with chronic UCL instability with no evidence of arthritic changes on x-ray. The original injury should have been treated in a thumb spica cast for 6 weeks to allow for UCL healing. UCL tears are generally considered chronic if they present >6 weeks out from injury. In the case of a chronic tear, direct repair is not a viable treatment choice as the quality of the torn UCL tissue deteriorates over time. Ligament reconstruction with a tendon graft is the most common procedure to restore MCP joint stability for chronic UCL tears. Patients return to normal activities 3 months postop from ligament reconstruction with an equal grip strength expected. MCP joint arthritis is a contraindication for a ligament reconstruction procedure. MCP joint fusion is a last resort option for patients who have developed arthritis in the joint and continue to have pain and instability. 1,2
    Answer C.

    References
    1. Pulos, Nicholas MD1,a; Shin, Alexander Y. MD2,b. Treatment of Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries of the Thumb: A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Reviews 5(2):e3, February 21, 2017.
    2. Poggi DS, Massarella M, Piccirilli E. The Treatment of Chronic Ulnar Collateral Ligament of the Thumb Injury Using Extensor Pollicis Brevis: Surgical Technique. J Hand Surg Glob Online. 2020 Nov 10;3(1):56-60. doi: 10.1016/j.jhsg.2020.10.002. PMID: 35415531; PMCID: PMC8991867.

    Incorrect

    The ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) provides stability at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint during tasks like grasping or pinching objects with the thumb. This patient presents with chronic UCL instability with no evidence of arthritic changes on x-ray. The original injury should have been treated in a thumb spica cast for 6 weeks to allow for UCL healing. UCL tears are generally considered chronic if they present >6 weeks out from injury. In the case of a chronic tear, direct repair is not a viable treatment choice as the quality of the torn UCL tissue deteriorates over time. Ligament reconstruction with a tendon graft is the most common procedure to restore MCP joint stability for chronic UCL tears. Patients return to normal activities 3 months postop from ligament reconstruction with an equal grip strength expected. MCP joint arthritis is a contraindication for a ligament reconstruction procedure. MCP joint fusion is a last resort option for patients who have developed arthritis in the joint and continue to have pain and instability. 1,2
    Answer C.

    References
    1. Pulos, Nicholas MD1,a; Shin, Alexander Y. MD2,b. Treatment of Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries of the Thumb: A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Reviews 5(2):e3, February 21, 2017.
    2. Poggi DS, Massarella M, Piccirilli E. The Treatment of Chronic Ulnar Collateral Ligament of the Thumb Injury Using Extensor Pollicis Brevis: Surgical Technique. J Hand Surg Glob Online. 2020 Nov 10;3(1):56-60. doi: 10.1016/j.jhsg.2020.10.002. PMID: 35415531; PMCID: PMC8991867.

  45. Question 45 of 86
    45. Question

    A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency room with severe lower back pain after a fall off a 10 foot ladder 3 days ago. He denies any weakness or numbness in his lower extremities or having any bowel or bladder changes. On physical exam his motor strength and light touch sensation are intact in his lower extremities. He has pain to palpation over the L1 region with moderate paraspinous spasm. CT of his abdomen and pelvis reveals an L1 burst fracture with bony retropulsion (Figure 1). He also has a pedicle fracture to the left on L1 and a nondisplaced T12 spinous process fracture. Sagittal MRI image is shown in figure 2. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    A burst fracture is a severe compression fracture that results in disruption of the vertebral body endplate and posterior cortex of the vertebral body. A severe axial force and flexion moment causes compression of the anterior and middle columns of the spine which can lead to retropulsion of bony fragments into the spinal canal. Stable fractures without neurological compromise can be treated conservatively with or without a TLSO and early mobilization. A burst fracture is considered unstable if the patient has neurological deficits and/or disruption of the posterior column (injury to the pedicles, lamina, facet joints, spinous process and posterior ligament complex). Evidence of a posterior column injury may include displaced fractures through the lamina, pedicles, or facet joints, widening of the interspinous distance, and edema in the posterior ligament complex on MRI. Unstable burst fractures are prone to further vertebral height collapse and bony retropulsion with normal axial loading. Severity of kyphosis, vertebral body compression, and the amount of canal compromise also play a roll in surgical decision making. This patient has a posterior column involvement with a pedicle fracture and injury to the posterior ligament complex (with T12 spinous process fracture). He underwent a T11-L 3 posterior instrumented fusion (2 levels above and below the fracture). 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Mikles, Mark R. MD; Stchur, Robert P. MD; Graziano, Gregory P. MD. Posterior Instrumentation for Thoracolumbar Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: November 2004 – Volume 12 – Issue 6 – p 424-435
    2. Woo JH, Lee HW, Choi HJ, Kwon YM. Are “Unstable” Burst Fractures Really Unstable? J Korean Neurosurg Soc. 2021 Nov;64(6):944-949. doi: 10.3340/jkns.2021.0080. Epub 2021 Oct 25. PMID: 34689477; PMCID: PMC8590911.

    Incorrect

    A burst fracture is a severe compression fracture that results in disruption of the vertebral body endplate and posterior cortex of the vertebral body. A severe axial force and flexion moment causes compression of the anterior and middle columns of the spine which can lead to retropulsion of bony fragments into the spinal canal. Stable fractures without neurological compromise can be treated conservatively with or without a TLSO and early mobilization. A burst fracture is considered unstable if the patient has neurological deficits and/or disruption of the posterior column (injury to the pedicles, lamina, facet joints, spinous process and posterior ligament complex). Evidence of a posterior column injury may include displaced fractures through the lamina, pedicles, or facet joints, widening of the interspinous distance, and edema in the posterior ligament complex on MRI. Unstable burst fractures are prone to further vertebral height collapse and bony retropulsion with normal axial loading. Severity of kyphosis, vertebral body compression, and the amount of canal compromise also play a roll in surgical decision making. This patient has a posterior column involvement with a pedicle fracture and injury to the posterior ligament complex (with T12 spinous process fracture). He underwent a T11-L 3 posterior instrumented fusion (2 levels above and below the fracture). 1,2
    Answer D.
    References
    1. Mikles, Mark R. MD; Stchur, Robert P. MD; Graziano, Gregory P. MD. Posterior Instrumentation for Thoracolumbar Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons: November 2004 – Volume 12 – Issue 6 – p 424-435
    2. Woo JH, Lee HW, Choi HJ, Kwon YM. Are “Unstable” Burst Fractures Really Unstable? J Korean Neurosurg Soc. 2021 Nov;64(6):944-949. doi: 10.3340/jkns.2021.0080. Epub 2021 Oct 25. PMID: 34689477; PMCID: PMC8590911.

  46. Question 46 of 86
    46. Question

    A 45 year old obese male presents to your office with bilateral painful feet for several months. The pain seems to be located on the inside of the ankle and is made worse with walking on uneven surfaces and up stairs.  On physical exam of bilateral feet and ankles he has planovalgus alignment of both heels with loss of his medial longitudinal arch bilaterally. Bilateral AP and a lateral x-ray of the left foot are shown in figures 1 and 2. Which functional maneuver below would this patient have the most difficulty with?

    Correct

    The patient has started to develop posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD) as noted by the collapse of his medial arches and planovalgus deformity. Early PTTD is characterized by tendon inflammation without a change in foot shape (stage 1). As the condition progresses, the posterior tibial tendon elongates and the medial arch starts to collapse (stage 2 of 4). Obesity is one of the largest risk factors for progressive posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. The main function of the posterior tibial tendon is plantar flexion and inversion of the hindfoot. Single and double heel rises test the functional strength of the posterior tibial tendon. Early in the disease, when the tendon is inflamed, repetitive heel rises can become weak and painful with increasing attempts. As the condition progresses, many patients can’t perform a heel rise at all. This patient presents with early disease as there is no evidence of forefoot abduction or loss of talar head coverage on AP x-ray. Treatment for early PTTD is conservative with medial arch supports orthotics, stiff soled shoes, and/or a period of immobilization. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Jackson, J. Benjamin III MD, MBA; Pacana, Matthew J. MD; Gonzalez, Tyler A. MD, MBA. Adult Acquired Flatfoot Deformity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(1):p e6-e16, January 1, 2022.
    2. Abousayed M, Alley M, Shakked R, Rosenbaum AJ. Adult Acquired Flatfoot Deformity: etiology, diagnosis, and management. JBJS REVIEWS 2017;5(8):e7.
    Incorrect

    The patient has started to develop posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD) as noted by the collapse of his medial arches and planovalgus deformity. Early PTTD is characterized by tendon inflammation without a change in foot shape (stage 1). As the condition progresses, the posterior tibial tendon elongates and the medial arch starts to collapse (stage 2 of 4). Obesity is one of the largest risk factors for progressive posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. The main function of the posterior tibial tendon is plantar flexion and inversion of the hindfoot. Single and double heel rises test the functional strength of the posterior tibial tendon. Early in the disease, when the tendon is inflamed, repetitive heel rises can become weak and painful with increasing attempts. As the condition progresses, many patients can’t perform a heel rise at all. This patient presents with early disease as there is no evidence of forefoot abduction or loss of talar head coverage on AP x-ray. Treatment for early PTTD is conservative with medial arch supports orthotics, stiff soled shoes, and/or a period of immobilization. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Jackson, J. Benjamin III MD, MBA; Pacana, Matthew J. MD; Gonzalez, Tyler A. MD, MBA. Adult Acquired Flatfoot Deformity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(1):p e6-e16, January 1, 2022.
    2. Abousayed M, Alley M, Shakked R, Rosenbaum AJ. Adult Acquired Flatfoot Deformity: etiology, diagnosis, and management. JBJS REVIEWS 2017;5(8):e7.
  47. Question 47 of 86
    47. Question

    An 8 year old girl presents to your clinic with her mother after a fall at the playground a few hours ago. She fell off the monkey bars and landed on her extended left arm. She now has pain and swelling over the medial elbow and difficulty moving the arm. AP and lateral x-rays of the elbow show a subtle medial epicondyle fracture. The presence of which ossification center on x-ray would indicate the medial epicondyle ossification center should be visualized in the patient?

    Correct

    Pediatric elbow fractures can be a challenge to diagnosis as the ossification centers of the elbow appear and close at varying ages. The capitellum is the first ossification center to appear at 1-2 years of age followed by the radial heat at 3-4, medial epicondyle at 5-6, the trochlea at 7-8, the olecranon at 9-10, and finally the lateral condyle at 11-12. The mnemonic CRITOE can be used to remember this sequence, capitellum, radial head, internal (medial) condyle, trochlea, olecranon, and external (lateral) epicondyle. Knowing this chronological sequence of ossification can help identify fractures and displacement. For instance, this patient’s olecranon ossification center has appeared so the medial epicondyle should be present. If there is any question of fracture, an x-ray of the contralateral elbow is useful for comparison. The medial epicondyle apophysis is the last growth plate to fuse in the elbow, generally between the ages of 15 and 20. The medial epicondyle is an attachment site for the forearm flexor-pronator mass and the ulnar collateral ligament. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Gottschalk, Hilton P. MD; Eisner, Eric MD; Hosalkar, Harish S. MD. Medial Epicondyle Fractures in the Pediatric Population. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(4):p 223-232, April 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-04-223
    2. Bolander S, Post G. Prompt Recognition. 5 Pediatric Elbow Fractures not to Miss. JBJS JOPA 2023; 11(2):
    Incorrect

    Pediatric elbow fractures can be a challenge to diagnosis as the ossification centers of the elbow appear and close at varying ages. The capitellum is the first ossification center to appear at 1-2 years of age followed by the radial heat at 3-4, medial epicondyle at 5-6, the trochlea at 7-8, the olecranon at 9-10, and finally the lateral condyle at 11-12. The mnemonic CRITOE can be used to remember this sequence, capitellum, radial head, internal (medial) condyle, trochlea, olecranon, and external (lateral) epicondyle. Knowing this chronological sequence of ossification can help identify fractures and displacement. For instance, this patient’s olecranon ossification center has appeared so the medial epicondyle should be present. If there is any question of fracture, an x-ray of the contralateral elbow is useful for comparison. The medial epicondyle apophysis is the last growth plate to fuse in the elbow, generally between the ages of 15 and 20. The medial epicondyle is an attachment site for the forearm flexor-pronator mass and the ulnar collateral ligament. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Gottschalk, Hilton P. MD; Eisner, Eric MD; Hosalkar, Harish S. MD. Medial Epicondyle Fractures in the Pediatric Population. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(4):p 223-232, April 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-04-223
    2. Bolander S, Post G. Prompt Recognition. 5 Pediatric Elbow Fractures not to Miss. JBJS JOPA 2023; 11(2):
  48. Question 48 of 86
    48. Question

    A 13 year old female presents to your office with right hip pain while running. She started track practices a few weeks ago and has noticed pain and a snapping feeling in her right hip after a few laps around the track. She denies a previous injury or precipitating event, although she says her aunt has hip instability from hip dysplasia. AP and lateral x-rays of the right hip are shown in figures 1 and 2. On AP x-ray of the patients right hip the lateral center-edge angle measures 30 degrees. On physical exam the patient has a negative FABER test and pain with resisted hip flexion. What is the next best step in treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    The differential diagnosis for hip pain in an athletic adolescent can be broad. Coxa saltans, otherwise known as “snapping hip syndrome”, can include a tight IT band snapping over the greater trochanter and catching of the iopsoas tendon at the iliopectineal eminence or on the femoral head. Other common diagnoses may include tight hip flexors, hip dysplasia, acetabular labral tear, and femoroacetabular impingement. Hip dysplasia generally produces symptoms of hip instability (popping sensation, pain with activities) and is associated with chronic symptoms for years. Radiographs of the hip will show decreased femoral head coverage with a lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) <20 degrees. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) causes pain with hip flexion and rotation and patients may describe their pain using a C sign by cupping the anterior lateral aspect of the hip with the thumb and forefingers. FAI is opposite to hip dysplasia as the condition is caused by over coverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum. FAI usually has an increased LCEA >40 degrees. Conservative treatment is initially recommended for all adolescent patients presenting with athletic related hip pain. A period of rest and NSAIDS can usually settle down an inflammatory condition like tendinitis or hip joint synovitis. Physical therapy is also important to stretch tight muscles and tendons and to strengthen the hip joint for athletic performance. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Schmitz, Matthew R. MD; Murtha, Andrew S. MD;  The ANCHOR Study Group; Clohisy, John C. MD. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip in Adolescents and Young Adults. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(3):p 91-101, February 1, 2020.
    2. Allen, William C. MD; Cope, Ray MD. Coxa Saltans: The Snapping Hip Revisited. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 3(5):p 303-308, September 1995.

     

    Incorrect

    The differential diagnosis for hip pain in an athletic adolescent can be broad. Coxa saltans, otherwise known as “snapping hip syndrome”, can include a tight IT band snapping over the greater trochanter and catching of the iopsoas tendon at the iliopectineal eminence or on the femoral head. Other common diagnoses may include tight hip flexors, hip dysplasia, acetabular labral tear, and femoroacetabular impingement. Hip dysplasia generally produces symptoms of hip instability (popping sensation, pain with activities) and is associated with chronic symptoms for years. Radiographs of the hip will show decreased femoral head coverage with a lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) <20 degrees. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) causes pain with hip flexion and rotation and patients may describe their pain using a C sign by cupping the anterior lateral aspect of the hip with the thumb and forefingers. FAI is opposite to hip dysplasia as the condition is caused by over coverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum. FAI usually has an increased LCEA >40 degrees. Conservative treatment is initially recommended for all adolescent patients presenting with athletic related hip pain. A period of rest and NSAIDS can usually settle down an inflammatory condition like tendinitis or hip joint synovitis. Physical therapy is also important to stretch tight muscles and tendons and to strengthen the hip joint for athletic performance. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Schmitz, Matthew R. MD; Murtha, Andrew S. MD;  The ANCHOR Study Group; Clohisy, John C. MD. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip in Adolescents and Young Adults. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(3):p 91-101, February 1, 2020.
    2. Allen, William C. MD; Cope, Ray MD. Coxa Saltans: The Snapping Hip Revisited. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 3(5):p 303-308, September 1995.

     

  49. Question 49 of 86
    49. Question

    A 13 year old male presents to your office with right hip pain after a fall during a soccer match earlier in the day. He admits to a sudden stop and falling forward with pain. He is now having difficulty bearing weight on the right leg and cannot flex his hip. AP pelvis x-ray is shown in figure 1. What is the next best step in treatment of this patient?

    Correct

    The patient has an avulsion fracture of the less trochanter. Avulsion fractures are commonly seen in the pediatric population at secondary ossification centers including the ischial tuberosity, anterior superior iliac spine, and anterior inferior iliac spine, and less often in the tibial tubercle, calcaneus, and greater and lesser trochanters. Secondary ossification centers act as attachment sites for tendons and ligaments and don’t contribute to the length of bone. Secondary ossification centers generally fuse by 17 years of age so the most common age group for avulsion fractures are adolescent athletes. In adolescents the tendon attachment is stronger than the growth plate so sudden contraction of the attached tendon/muscle can result in an avulsion injury. Avulsion injuries are diagnosed radiographically in most cases and advanced imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is in question. Isolated lesser trochanter avulsion fractures occur with a sudden contraction of the iliopsoas muscle (hip flexor). Patients present with groin pain, difficulty ambulating, and inability to flex the hip. Lesser trochanter avulsion fractures are treated non-operatively with a 3-4 week period of rest and crutches for support, followed by a gradual rehab back into athletic activities. Sports should be resumed when the patient is asymptomatic and there are radiographic signs of healing, which may take 2-3 months. The prognosis for lesser trochanter avulsion injuries is excellent and surgery is only considered if patients develop a symptomatic nonunion and/or a painful exostosis. Surgery involves removal of the painful nonunion with reattachment of the iliopsoas to the proximal femur. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Tahir T, Manzoor QW, Gul IA, Bhat SA, Kangoo KA. Isolated Avulsion Fractures of Lesser Trochanter in Adolescents – A Case Series and Brief Literature Review. J Orthop Case Rep. 2019 Jan-Feb;9(1):11-14.
    2. Schiller, Jonathan MD; DeFroda, Steven MD, ME; Blood, Travis MD. Lower Extremity Avulsion Fractures in the Pediatric and Adolescent Athlete. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 25(4):p 251-259, April 2017.
    Incorrect

    The patient has an avulsion fracture of the less trochanter. Avulsion fractures are commonly seen in the pediatric population at secondary ossification centers including the ischial tuberosity, anterior superior iliac spine, and anterior inferior iliac spine, and less often in the tibial tubercle, calcaneus, and greater and lesser trochanters. Secondary ossification centers act as attachment sites for tendons and ligaments and don’t contribute to the length of bone. Secondary ossification centers generally fuse by 17 years of age so the most common age group for avulsion fractures are adolescent athletes. In adolescents the tendon attachment is stronger than the growth plate so sudden contraction of the attached tendon/muscle can result in an avulsion injury. Avulsion injuries are diagnosed radiographically in most cases and advanced imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is in question. Isolated lesser trochanter avulsion fractures occur with a sudden contraction of the iliopsoas muscle (hip flexor). Patients present with groin pain, difficulty ambulating, and inability to flex the hip. Lesser trochanter avulsion fractures are treated non-operatively with a 3-4 week period of rest and crutches for support, followed by a gradual rehab back into athletic activities. Sports should be resumed when the patient is asymptomatic and there are radiographic signs of healing, which may take 2-3 months. The prognosis for lesser trochanter avulsion injuries is excellent and surgery is only considered if patients develop a symptomatic nonunion and/or a painful exostosis. Surgery involves removal of the painful nonunion with reattachment of the iliopsoas to the proximal femur. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Tahir T, Manzoor QW, Gul IA, Bhat SA, Kangoo KA. Isolated Avulsion Fractures of Lesser Trochanter in Adolescents – A Case Series and Brief Literature Review. J Orthop Case Rep. 2019 Jan-Feb;9(1):11-14.
    2. Schiller, Jonathan MD; DeFroda, Steven MD, ME; Blood, Travis MD. Lower Extremity Avulsion Fractures in the Pediatric and Adolescent Athlete. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 25(4):p 251-259, April 2017.
  50. Question 50 of 86
    50. Question

    A 25 year old male presents to your office with left thumb pain after a fall two days ago. He was playing soccer when he tripped and fell landing on an outstretched hand. He believes the left thumb braced his fall. He now complains of persistent pain and instability of the thumb, especially when grasping objects. AP and lateral x-rays of the left thumb are shown in figures 1 and 2. On physical exam he has tenderness of the ulnar side of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and a 10 degree increase in valgus laxity compared to the contralateral MCP joint.  What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The ulnar collateral and radial collateral ligaments provide stability to the MCP joint of the thumb and are critical structures for thumb function. The ulnar collateral ligament on the ulnar side of the thumb is particularly important for grasping objects and is 10 times more likely to be injured than the radial collateral ligament. UCL injuries represent 86% of all athletic thumb injuries. Treatment of bony avulsion injuries is controversial but general guidelines include conservative treatment if the fracture is displaced <2mm. Larger fragments (involving >30% of the joint space) and >2mm of displacement tend to have more thumb instability with conservative treatment. Fracture rotation can also lead to a nonunion so x-rays should be critically reviewed for alignment of the fracture fragment.  Treatment of nondisplaced, and <2mm displaced, bony UCL injuries involves immobilization with a thumb spica cast for 6 weeks. 1,2

    Answer A

     

    References

    1. Thumb collateral ligament injuries. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed on 4/30/23
    2. Chang, Andy L. MD; Merkow, David B. MD; Bookman, Jared S. MD; Glickel, Steven Z. MD. Thumb Metacarpophalangeal Joint Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries: Management and Biomechanical Evaluation. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 31(1):p 7-16, January 1, 2023. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-00112
    Incorrect

    The ulnar collateral and radial collateral ligaments provide stability to the MCP joint of the thumb and are critical structures for thumb function. The ulnar collateral ligament on the ulnar side of the thumb is particularly important for grasping objects and is 10 times more likely to be injured than the radial collateral ligament. UCL injuries represent 86% of all athletic thumb injuries. Treatment of bony avulsion injuries is controversial but general guidelines include conservative treatment if the fracture is displaced <2mm. Larger fragments (involving >30% of the joint space) and >2mm of displacement tend to have more thumb instability with conservative treatment. Fracture rotation can also lead to a nonunion so x-rays should be critically reviewed for alignment of the fracture fragment.  Treatment of nondisplaced, and <2mm displaced, bony UCL injuries involves immobilization with a thumb spica cast for 6 weeks. 1,2

    Answer A

     

    References

    1. Thumb collateral ligament injuries. http://www.orthobullets.com. Accessed on 4/30/23
    2. Chang, Andy L. MD; Merkow, David B. MD; Bookman, Jared S. MD; Glickel, Steven Z. MD. Thumb Metacarpophalangeal Joint Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries: Management and Biomechanical Evaluation. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 31(1):p 7-16, January 1, 2023. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-00112
  51. Question 51 of 86
    51. Question

    A 39 year old female presents to your office with increasing numbness down both legs and new onset numbness around her groin and buttocks since this morning. She also admits to urinary incontinence this morning. She has a one month history of lower back pain with bilateral lower extremity radiculopathy and last week had an MRI showing a large L5-S1 disc herniation that occupies the spinal canal (figure 1).  On physical exam she has 4 out of 5 weakness in all muscle groups of both legs and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities. She notes to have diminished two point discrimination in the groin and buttocks and decreased rectal tone. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The cauda equina consists of peripheral nerve roots (L1-S5) that continue from the spinal cord (picture a horse tail leaving the spinal cord) and is surrounded by a dural sac within the lumbar spinal canal. Lumbar disc herniations that compress peripheral roots can cause a number of symptoms including lower back pain, leg pain, and numbness and weakness in the lower extremities. A large disc herniation that occupies the central canal can compress the cauda equina causing severe motor and sensory impairment, or cauda equina syndrome (CES). Symptoms of CES may vary and include lower extremity pain and weakness, saddle anesthesia, and loss of bowel or bladder function. Loss of bladder function is a required element of CES and can vary from difficulty initiating a urinary stream to full incontinence. If symptoms of CES exist an urgent MRI must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and prepare for surgery. Neurological deficits can progress rapidly and become permanent with CES unless the disc herniation is removed and pressure is taking off the nerve roots. Emergent surgical decompression should be performed within 24-48 hours of symptom onset to improve neurological recovery. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Spector, Leo R. MD; Madigan, Luke MD; Rhyne, Alfred MD; Darden, Bruce II MD; Kim, David MD. Cauda Equina Syndrome. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 16(8):p 471-479, August 2008.
    2. Gitelman A, Hishmeh S, Morelli BN, Joseph Jr SA, Casden A, Kuflik P, Neuwirth M, Stephen M. Cauda equina syndrome: a comprehensive review. Am J Orthop (Belle Mead NJ). 2008 Nov 1;37(11):556-62.
    Incorrect

    The cauda equina consists of peripheral nerve roots (L1-S5) that continue from the spinal cord (picture a horse tail leaving the spinal cord) and is surrounded by a dural sac within the lumbar spinal canal. Lumbar disc herniations that compress peripheral roots can cause a number of symptoms including lower back pain, leg pain, and numbness and weakness in the lower extremities. A large disc herniation that occupies the central canal can compress the cauda equina causing severe motor and sensory impairment, or cauda equina syndrome (CES). Symptoms of CES may vary and include lower extremity pain and weakness, saddle anesthesia, and loss of bowel or bladder function. Loss of bladder function is a required element of CES and can vary from difficulty initiating a urinary stream to full incontinence. If symptoms of CES exist an urgent MRI must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and prepare for surgery. Neurological deficits can progress rapidly and become permanent with CES unless the disc herniation is removed and pressure is taking off the nerve roots. Emergent surgical decompression should be performed within 24-48 hours of symptom onset to improve neurological recovery. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Spector, Leo R. MD; Madigan, Luke MD; Rhyne, Alfred MD; Darden, Bruce II MD; Kim, David MD. Cauda Equina Syndrome. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 16(8):p 471-479, August 2008.
    2. Gitelman A, Hishmeh S, Morelli BN, Joseph Jr SA, Casden A, Kuflik P, Neuwirth M, Stephen M. Cauda equina syndrome: a comprehensive review. Am J Orthop (Belle Mead NJ). 2008 Nov 1;37(11):556-62.
  52. Question 52 of 86
    52. Question

    A 56 year old male presents to your office with right knee pain for a few months. He denies a known injury and he feels the pain when he bends or pivots on the knee. On physical exam he has a small effusion and pain to palpation over the posterior medial joint line. Sagittal MRI image (figure 1) shows a degenerative tear of the posterior medial meniscus with grade 3 arthritis of the medial compartment. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    The prevalence of meniscus tears increases with age and patients over 70 years old more common than not will have an asymptomatic meniscus tear. In fact, male patients over 50 were found to have a 32% prevalence of a meniscal tear and a 56% prevalence in patients over 70. The prevalence of meniscus tears increases dramatically in the presence of arthritis. Among patients with moderate to severe arthritis (grades 3 and 4 changes on x-ray) 95% had meniscus damage. The take home message to this is the incidental finding of a meniscus tear in patients with knee arthritis is very common. Patients over 50 years of age should understand the high likelihood of finding an asymptomatic meniscus tear when ordering an MRI and when interpreting the results. Surgical treatment with an arthroscopic meniscectomy in the presence of knee arthritis has poor outcomes as the arthroscopy treats the meniscus tear but not the underling arthritis. The degenerative pattern of a meniscus tear in patients over 50 with underlying arthritis should be treated with a focus on the arthritis and not with an arthroscopic meniscectomy. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Englund M, Guermazi A, Gale D, Hunter DJ, Aliabadi P, Clancy M, Felson DT. Incidental meniscal findings on knee MRI in middle-aged and elderly persons. New England Journal of Medicine. 2008 Sep 11;359(11):1108-15.
    2. Buchbinder R, Harris IA, Sprowson A. Management of degenerative meniscal tears and the role of surgery. Bmj. 2015 Jun 4;350.
    Incorrect

    The prevalence of meniscus tears increases with age and patients over 70 years old more common than not will have an asymptomatic meniscus tear. In fact, male patients over 50 were found to have a 32% prevalence of a meniscal tear and a 56% prevalence in patients over 70. The prevalence of meniscus tears increases dramatically in the presence of arthritis. Among patients with moderate to severe arthritis (grades 3 and 4 changes on x-ray) 95% had meniscus damage. The take home message to this is the incidental finding of a meniscus tear in patients with knee arthritis is very common. Patients over 50 years of age should understand the high likelihood of finding an asymptomatic meniscus tear when ordering an MRI and when interpreting the results. Surgical treatment with an arthroscopic meniscectomy in the presence of knee arthritis has poor outcomes as the arthroscopy treats the meniscus tear but not the underling arthritis. The degenerative pattern of a meniscus tear in patients over 50 with underlying arthritis should be treated with a focus on the arthritis and not with an arthroscopic meniscectomy. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Englund M, Guermazi A, Gale D, Hunter DJ, Aliabadi P, Clancy M, Felson DT. Incidental meniscal findings on knee MRI in middle-aged and elderly persons. New England Journal of Medicine. 2008 Sep 11;359(11):1108-15.
    2. Buchbinder R, Harris IA, Sprowson A. Management of degenerative meniscal tears and the role of surgery. Bmj. 2015 Jun 4;350.
  53. Question 53 of 86
    53. Question

    A 31 year old female presents to your office with left wrist and thumb pain for 3 months. She has young children at home and notices the pain when she picks them up off the ground. The pain seems to be getting worse and now she is having pain when grabbing a cup and twisting a door knob. She tried 6 weeks of intermittent use of a thumb spica splint and NSAIDS which didn’t seem to relieve her pain. AP and lateral x-rays of the hand are shown in figures 1 and 2. On physical exam she has a positive Finkelstein’s test and pain with thumb range of motion. What is the next best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Quervain (stenosing tenosynovitis) is a condition where the tendons become inflamed and swollen which causes friction and pain at the first dorsal compartment during thumb motion. The Finkelstein test is a reliable test to make the diagnosis and includes tucking the thumb in a clenched fist and ulnar deviating the wrist. X-rays of the thumb can help rule out carpometacarpal (base of the thumb) arthritis. A period of rest and immobilization with a thumb spica splint is recommended initially to help reduce the friction of the tendons gliding under the fibrous tissue of the first dorsal compartment. Corticosteroid injections offer a very successful treatment option should more conservative treatments fail. Many patients get complete relief after one injection. Nearly all patients will have relief of symptoms with a combination of an injection and intermittent immobilization at 6 months. If patients fail two injections and continue to have pain surgical treatment with an open release of the first dorsal compartment is a successful option. 1,2

     

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Ilyas, Asif M. MD; Ast, Michael MD; Schaffer, Alyssa A. MD; Thoder, Joseph MD. de Quervain Tenosynovitis of the Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 15(12):p 757-764, December 2007.
    2. Larsen C, Fitzgerald M, Nellans K, Lane L. Management of de Quervain Tenosynovitis: A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Rev, 9(9):e21.00069
    Incorrect

    Quervain (stenosing tenosynovitis) is a condition where the tendons become inflamed and swollen which causes friction and pain at the first dorsal compartment during thumb motion. The Finkelstein test is a reliable test to make the diagnosis and includes tucking the thumb in a clenched fist and ulnar deviating the wrist. X-rays of the thumb can help rule out carpometacarpal (base of the thumb) arthritis. A period of rest and immobilization with a thumb spica splint is recommended initially to help reduce the friction of the tendons gliding under the fibrous tissue of the first dorsal compartment. Corticosteroid injections offer a very successful treatment option should more conservative treatments fail. Many patients get complete relief after one injection. Nearly all patients will have relief of symptoms with a combination of an injection and intermittent immobilization at 6 months. If patients fail two injections and continue to have pain surgical treatment with an open release of the first dorsal compartment is a successful option. 1,2

     

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Ilyas, Asif M. MD; Ast, Michael MD; Schaffer, Alyssa A. MD; Thoder, Joseph MD. de Quervain Tenosynovitis of the Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 15(12):p 757-764, December 2007.
    2. Larsen C, Fitzgerald M, Nellans K, Lane L. Management of de Quervain Tenosynovitis: A Critical Analysis Review. JBJS Rev, 9(9):e21.00069
  54. Question 54 of 86
    54. Question

    A 13 year old male presents to your office with right wrist pain after falling to the ice during a hockey game 2 days ago. He was able to play through the injury during the game but the next day he noticed worsening pain and an inability to turn a doorknob. On physical exam of the right wrist, he has mild swelling over the dorsal wrist and tenderness to palpation over the anatomic stuff box. AP, lateral, and scaphoid view x-rays are shown in figures 1,2 and 3, respectively. What is the most cost-effective next step in treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    Patients that present with a suspected scaphoid injury with negative x-rays create a treatment dilemma for providers. Treating the injury as a suspected occult fracture or obtaining immediate advanced imaging is the controversial next step. Up to 30% to 40% of scaphoid fractures are missed with clinical exam and initial x-rays and a missed diagnosis can lead to long term complications. Anatomical snuffbox tenderness is the most sensitive physical exam finding for identifying scaphoid fractures. Many providers treat patients with snuffbox tenderness with wrist immobilization due to a suspected fracture. However, treating all suspected scaphoid fractures as true fractures can result in unnecessary immobilization, lost time from sports and/or work, and potentially post-immobilization stiffness. Obtaining immediate advanced imagining is favored in most cost and outcome models as a negative MRI avoids the expense of further follow-up visits and repeat x-rays. If an immediate MRI is not available or unaffordable, a reasonable approach would be to repeat a physical exam and x-rays 2 weeks after the initial office visit. 1,2

    Answer C

    References

    1. Karl JW, Swart E, Strauch RJ. Diagnosis of Occult Scaphoid Fractures: A Cost-Effectiveness Analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 97(22):1860-1868 | Scientific Articles | November 18, 2015
    2. Stirling PH, Strelzow JA, Doornber JN, White TO, McQueen MM, Duckworth AD. Diagnosis of Suspected Scaphoid Fractures. JBJS Rev, 9(12):e20.00247 | Review Articles | December 08, 2021
    Incorrect

    Patients that present with a suspected scaphoid injury with negative x-rays create a treatment dilemma for providers. Treating the injury as a suspected occult fracture or obtaining immediate advanced imaging is the controversial next step. Up to 30% to 40% of scaphoid fractures are missed with clinical exam and initial x-rays and a missed diagnosis can lead to long term complications. Anatomical snuffbox tenderness is the most sensitive physical exam finding for identifying scaphoid fractures. Many providers treat patients with snuffbox tenderness with wrist immobilization due to a suspected fracture. However, treating all suspected scaphoid fractures as true fractures can result in unnecessary immobilization, lost time from sports and/or work, and potentially post-immobilization stiffness. Obtaining immediate advanced imagining is favored in most cost and outcome models as a negative MRI avoids the expense of further follow-up visits and repeat x-rays. If an immediate MRI is not available or unaffordable, a reasonable approach would be to repeat a physical exam and x-rays 2 weeks after the initial office visit. 1,2

    Answer C

    References

    1. Karl JW, Swart E, Strauch RJ. Diagnosis of Occult Scaphoid Fractures: A Cost-Effectiveness Analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 97(22):1860-1868 | Scientific Articles | November 18, 2015
    2. Stirling PH, Strelzow JA, Doornber JN, White TO, McQueen MM, Duckworth AD. Diagnosis of Suspected Scaphoid Fractures. JBJS Rev, 9(12):e20.00247 | Review Articles | December 08, 2021
  55. Question 55 of 86
    55. Question

    A 59 year old female presents to your office with complaints of swelling in her left upper chest for the past few months. She has noticed a concerning bump where the clavicle meets the sternum (sternoclavicular joint or SC joint). She denies having an injury or precipitating event. On physical exam the patients has swelling over the SC joint which is tender to palpation. She has mild pain with horizontal adduction and with forward flexion of the left arm. She denies fevers, chills, and a history of IV drug use. AP x-ray of the upper chest is shown in figure 1. What is the next best step in treatment of this patient?

    Correct

    The sternoclavicular (SC) joint consists of the medial clavicle that articulates with the sternum in a shallow saddle type joint. Much of the stability of the SC joint is provided by the surrounding ligaments. The SC joint is just beneath the subcutaneous tissue and therefore even mild swelling of the joint can be visible. Many patients present with asymptomatic swelling of the SC joint with concerns of malignancy or joint instability. Swelling from the joint without a history of trauma is most likely from degenerative arthritis. A history of IV drug abuse with an acutely red and swollen SC joint should raise concern of septic arthritis. The diagnosis is often made by clinical exam and radiographs. Subtle findings of joint space narrowing and sclerosis can be difficult to see with overlapping bone. Treatment is almost always conservative with ice and NSAIDs to help bring down the swelling. A local steroid injection should be considered with caution as critical vascular structures lie just beneath the SC joint. In rare cases an SC joint resection is a surgical option that could be considered if conservative treatments fail. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Higginbotham, Thomas O. MD; Kuhn, John E. MD. Atraumatic Disorders of the Sternoclavicular Joint. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(2):p 138-145, March 2005.
    2. Robinson CM, Jenkins PJ, Markham PE, Beggs I. Disorders of the sternoclavicular joint. The Journal of Bone & Joint Surgery British Volume. 2008 Jun 1;90(6):685-96.
    Incorrect

    The sternoclavicular (SC) joint consists of the medial clavicle that articulates with the sternum in a shallow saddle type joint. Much of the stability of the SC joint is provided by the surrounding ligaments. The SC joint is just beneath the subcutaneous tissue and therefore even mild swelling of the joint can be visible. Many patients present with asymptomatic swelling of the SC joint with concerns of malignancy or joint instability. Swelling from the joint without a history of trauma is most likely from degenerative arthritis. A history of IV drug abuse with an acutely red and swollen SC joint should raise concern of septic arthritis. The diagnosis is often made by clinical exam and radiographs. Subtle findings of joint space narrowing and sclerosis can be difficult to see with overlapping bone. Treatment is almost always conservative with ice and NSAIDs to help bring down the swelling. A local steroid injection should be considered with caution as critical vascular structures lie just beneath the SC joint. In rare cases an SC joint resection is a surgical option that could be considered if conservative treatments fail. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Higginbotham, Thomas O. MD; Kuhn, John E. MD. Atraumatic Disorders of the Sternoclavicular Joint. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(2):p 138-145, March 2005.
    2. Robinson CM, Jenkins PJ, Markham PE, Beggs I. Disorders of the sternoclavicular joint. The Journal of Bone & Joint Surgery British Volume. 2008 Jun 1;90(6):685-96.
  56. Question 56 of 86
    56. Question

    A 24 year old male presents to your office with a 4 month history of ulnar sided right wrist pain after a fall on an outstretched hand. On physical exam he has tenderness to palpation over the ulnar fovea and increased pain with ulnar deviation of the wrist. He has full strength and sensation in the hand.  He has tried a period of rest and NSAIDs for 3 months, and intra-articular injection and more recently a 6 week period of immobilization in a cast without relief. AP and lateral x-rays are negative for a fracture or degenerative changes (figures 1 and 2). Coronal MRI (figure 3) shows a partial tear vs. a sprain of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    Ulnar sided wrist pain is a common presenting symptom but can be difficult to determine a cause. Common causes may include TFCC tears, a ligament sprain, distal radial ulnar joint (DRUJ) arthritis and instability, fractures and tendinitis. The triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) is a ligament structure that supports the carpus and DRUJ. TFCC injuries can occur with a traumatic fall or degenerate over time. TFCC injuries present with ulnar sided wrist pain when opening a door knob or turning a key. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall with the wrist in extension and the forearm in pronation. On physical exam patients will have pain over the soft spot between the ulnar styloid and flexi carpi ulnaris tendon (fovea sign). X-rays will be negative with TFCC injuries and an MRI is the study of choice to confirm the diagnosis. Diagnostic wrist arthroscopy with repair or debridement is the recommended surgical approach when conservative treatments have failed. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. DaSilva, Manuel F. MD; Goodman, Avi D. MD; Gil, Joseph A. MD; Akelman, Edward MD. Evaluation of Ulnar-sided Wrist Pain. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 25(8):p e150-e156, August 2017. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-16-00407
    2. Atzei A, Luchetti R. Foveal TFCC tear classification and treatment. Hand clinics. 2011 Aug 1;27(3):263-72.
    Incorrect

    Ulnar sided wrist pain is a common presenting symptom but can be difficult to determine a cause. Common causes may include TFCC tears, a ligament sprain, distal radial ulnar joint (DRUJ) arthritis and instability, fractures and tendinitis. The triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) is a ligament structure that supports the carpus and DRUJ. TFCC injuries can occur with a traumatic fall or degenerate over time. TFCC injuries present with ulnar sided wrist pain when opening a door knob or turning a key. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall with the wrist in extension and the forearm in pronation. On physical exam patients will have pain over the soft spot between the ulnar styloid and flexi carpi ulnaris tendon (fovea sign). X-rays will be negative with TFCC injuries and an MRI is the study of choice to confirm the diagnosis. Diagnostic wrist arthroscopy with repair or debridement is the recommended surgical approach when conservative treatments have failed. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. DaSilva, Manuel F. MD; Goodman, Avi D. MD; Gil, Joseph A. MD; Akelman, Edward MD. Evaluation of Ulnar-sided Wrist Pain. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 25(8):p e150-e156, August 2017. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-16-00407
    2. Atzei A, Luchetti R. Foveal TFCC tear classification and treatment. Hand clinics. 2011 Aug 1;27(3):263-72.
  57. Question 57 of 86
    57. Question

    A 13 year old male presents to the office with significant left ankle pain after a twisting injury while playing basketball earlier in the day. He planted to make a quick move and felt the ankle give out. On physical exam he has significant pain to palpation over the medial malleolus with mild swelling to the medial ankle. AP and lateral x-rays of the left ankle are shown in figures 1 and 2. The fracture line appears to start at the medial malleolus and a subtle fracture line extends to the epiphysis. Which choice below best describes this fracture?

    Correct

    Ankle fractures are a very common pediatric injury, only behind distal radius and finger injuries as the most common fracture locations involving growth plates. The distal tibial physis contributes to 40% growth of the tibia so an ankle injury that causes growth arrest can be devastating. Distal tibial physis closure generally occurs by 16 years of age for boys and 14 for girls. Before this time the surrounding ligament structures can be stronger than the growth plates, which leads to a tendency for growth plate fractures over ankle sprains in this age group. Over a period of 18 months, the distal tibial physis closes first in the middle of the physis, then the medial part, and lastly the lateral side. A Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral portion of the distal tibia, which results from an epiphyseal avulsion at the attachment site of the anterior talofibular ligament. Triplane fractures have fracture lines in 3 planes which involve the metaphyseal fragment posteriorly and an epiphyseal fragment which is more often lateral than medial. The patients fracture appears to involve the epiphysis and physis which is characteristic of a Salter-Harris Type III fracture. 1,2

     

    Answer D

    References

    1. Kay, Robert M. MD; Matthys, Gary A. MD. Pediatric Ankle Fractures: Evaluation and Treatment. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 9(4):p 268-278, July 2001.
    2. Blackburn EW, Aronsson D, Rubright J, Lisle J. Current Concepts Review: Ankle fractures in Children. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2012;94:1234-44
    Incorrect

    Ankle fractures are a very common pediatric injury, only behind distal radius and finger injuries as the most common fracture locations involving growth plates. The distal tibial physis contributes to 40% growth of the tibia so an ankle injury that causes growth arrest can be devastating. Distal tibial physis closure generally occurs by 16 years of age for boys and 14 for girls. Before this time the surrounding ligament structures can be stronger than the growth plates, which leads to a tendency for growth plate fractures over ankle sprains in this age group. Over a period of 18 months, the distal tibial physis closes first in the middle of the physis, then the medial part, and lastly the lateral side. A Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral portion of the distal tibia, which results from an epiphyseal avulsion at the attachment site of the anterior talofibular ligament. Triplane fractures have fracture lines in 3 planes which involve the metaphyseal fragment posteriorly and an epiphyseal fragment which is more often lateral than medial. The patients fracture appears to involve the epiphysis and physis which is characteristic of a Salter-Harris Type III fracture. 1,2

     

    Answer D

    References

    1. Kay, Robert M. MD; Matthys, Gary A. MD. Pediatric Ankle Fractures: Evaluation and Treatment. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 9(4):p 268-278, July 2001.
    2. Blackburn EW, Aronsson D, Rubright J, Lisle J. Current Concepts Review: Ankle fractures in Children. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2012;94:1234-44
  58. Question 58 of 86
    58. Question

    A 45 year old male construction worker presents to your office with right wrist pain after a fall. He is unable to lift objects off the ground or turn a door knob with that hand since the fall. On physical exam he has tenderness to palpation over the anatomical snuffbox of the right wrist. He was placed in a thumb spica cast for 4 weeks and returns to the office for repeat x-rays. Scaphoid view x-ray taken 2 days after the injury is shown in figure 1 and a repeat x-ray 4 weeks after the injury is shown in figure 2. The images show bone resorption has occurred at the fracture site since the initial x-rays. The patient prefers non-operative treatment if possible. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The scaphoid bone is a difficult one to fracture given its tenuous blood supply and its predilection for not healing. The blood supply to the scaphoid flows from a distal to proximal direction which causes scaphoid waist and proximal pole fractures to be more likely to form a non-union. Treatment of scaphoid waist fractures remains controversial but in general <2mm of displacement can be considered for conservative treatment with cast immobilization. Casting for a minimum of 8 weeks is generally recommended for scaphoid waist fractures. CT can be performed at 8 weeks to see if bridging callus is present. If there is significant bridging callus present then mobilization of the wrist may begin. Practically speaking, not every patient can get a CT so factors such as anatomical snuffbox tenderness and interval healing on x-ray are important factors. High risk patients such as those who work construction or athletes generally require 12-14 weeks of immobilization. Immobilization and serial x-rays every 3 weeks or so should be continued until radiographic signs of healing, which may take up to 4-6 months in some cases.  Bone resporption is common to see in scaphoid waist fractures at 4-6 weeks but this generally improves 4-6 weeks later on repeat x-rays. Concerning signs on x-ray that the fracture may be going on to a non-union include lack of interval healing, sclerosis of the fracture, cystic changes, increasing bone resorption on subsequent x-rays, and further displacement. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Li, Neill Y. MD; Dennison, David G. MD; Shin, Alexander Y. MD; Pulos, Nicholas A. MD. Update to Management of Acute Scaphoid Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons ():10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-01210, June 16, 2023.
    2. Fan S, Suh N, Grewal R. Observation of bony resorption during scaphoid fracture healing: a case series. Journal of Hand Surgery (European Volume). 2020 Oct;45(8):874-6.
    Incorrect

    The scaphoid bone is a difficult one to fracture given its tenuous blood supply and its predilection for not healing. The blood supply to the scaphoid flows from a distal to proximal direction which causes scaphoid waist and proximal pole fractures to be more likely to form a non-union. Treatment of scaphoid waist fractures remains controversial but in general <2mm of displacement can be considered for conservative treatment with cast immobilization. Casting for a minimum of 8 weeks is generally recommended for scaphoid waist fractures. CT can be performed at 8 weeks to see if bridging callus is present. If there is significant bridging callus present then mobilization of the wrist may begin. Practically speaking, not every patient can get a CT so factors such as anatomical snuffbox tenderness and interval healing on x-ray are important factors. High risk patients such as those who work construction or athletes generally require 12-14 weeks of immobilization. Immobilization and serial x-rays every 3 weeks or so should be continued until radiographic signs of healing, which may take up to 4-6 months in some cases.  Bone resporption is common to see in scaphoid waist fractures at 4-6 weeks but this generally improves 4-6 weeks later on repeat x-rays. Concerning signs on x-ray that the fracture may be going on to a non-union include lack of interval healing, sclerosis of the fracture, cystic changes, increasing bone resorption on subsequent x-rays, and further displacement. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Li, Neill Y. MD; Dennison, David G. MD; Shin, Alexander Y. MD; Pulos, Nicholas A. MD. Update to Management of Acute Scaphoid Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons ():10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-01210, June 16, 2023.
    2. Fan S, Suh N, Grewal R. Observation of bony resorption during scaphoid fracture healing: a case series. Journal of Hand Surgery (European Volume). 2020 Oct;45(8):874-6.
  59. Question 59 of 86
    59. Question

    A 35 year old female presents to your office with severe left wrist pain after a fall 4 days ago. On physical exam she has significant swelling to the wrist and pain to palpation over the distal radius. She also complains of pain and paresthesia’s in her thumb, index, and middle fingers that seem to be getting worse over the last day. Her light touch sensation is diminished in the medial nerve distribution compared to the contralateral hand. AP and lateral x-rays (figures 1 and 2) show a displaced distal radius fracture. What is the best treatment option for this fracture and her acute carpel tunnel syndrome?

    Correct

    Acute carpel tunnel syndrome (ACTS) can occur after a distal radius fracture due to elevated compartment pressures in the wrist from swelling and compression from a displaced fracture. A carpel tunnel contusion can be differentiated from ACTS by worsening symptoms over time in ACTS. Generally symptoms are watched over a few days to follow symptom progression and wait for swelling to subside prior to surgery. Failing to recognize ACTS can lead to permanent injury to the medial nerve. ACTS is diagnosed clinically with pain and paresthesia in the medial nerve distribution or thumb, index, and middle fingers. Fracture translation >35% and female patients less than 48 years of age are at higher risk of developing persistent carpel tunnel syndrome. Patients with persistent or worsening ACTS symptoms should have a prophylactic carpel tunnel release at the time of open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). A closed reduction of a displaced fracture and splinting may also help ACTS symptoms before definitive surgery. The incidence of ACTS after a distal radius fracture is around 9% and the symptoms are severe enough in 5% of patients to require a carpel tunnel release. A carpel tunnel release can be performed with a separate incision at the time of ORIF of a distal radius fracture. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Leow, J.M., Clement, N.D., McQueen, M.M. et al. The rate and associated risk factors for acute carpal tunnel syndrome complicating a fracture of the distal radius. Eur J Orthop Surg Traumatol 31, 981–987
    2. Dyer G, Lozano-Calderon S, Gannon C, Baratz M, Ring D. Predictors of acute carpal tunnel syndrome associated with fracture of the distal radius. The Journal of hand surgery. 2008 Oct 1;33(8):1309-13.
    Incorrect

    Acute carpel tunnel syndrome (ACTS) can occur after a distal radius fracture due to elevated compartment pressures in the wrist from swelling and compression from a displaced fracture. A carpel tunnel contusion can be differentiated from ACTS by worsening symptoms over time in ACTS. Generally symptoms are watched over a few days to follow symptom progression and wait for swelling to subside prior to surgery. Failing to recognize ACTS can lead to permanent injury to the medial nerve. ACTS is diagnosed clinically with pain and paresthesia in the medial nerve distribution or thumb, index, and middle fingers. Fracture translation >35% and female patients less than 48 years of age are at higher risk of developing persistent carpel tunnel syndrome. Patients with persistent or worsening ACTS symptoms should have a prophylactic carpel tunnel release at the time of open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). A closed reduction of a displaced fracture and splinting may also help ACTS symptoms before definitive surgery. The incidence of ACTS after a distal radius fracture is around 9% and the symptoms are severe enough in 5% of patients to require a carpel tunnel release. A carpel tunnel release can be performed with a separate incision at the time of ORIF of a distal radius fracture. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Leow, J.M., Clement, N.D., McQueen, M.M. et al. The rate and associated risk factors for acute carpal tunnel syndrome complicating a fracture of the distal radius. Eur J Orthop Surg Traumatol 31, 981–987
    2. Dyer G, Lozano-Calderon S, Gannon C, Baratz M, Ring D. Predictors of acute carpal tunnel syndrome associated with fracture of the distal radius. The Journal of hand surgery. 2008 Oct 1;33(8):1309-13.
  60. Question 60 of 86
    60. Question

    A 56 year old male presents with a 4 month history of left shoulder pain and stiffness without a known injury. He has tried oral NSAIDS and physical therapy over the last few months without relief. On physical exam he has significantly limited left shoulder active and passive range of motion (ROM) in all planes but full right shoulder active and passive ROM. The patient is a type II diabetic that is diet controlled. AP and axillary view x-rays are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step in treatment for this patient?

    Correct

    Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by functional loss of both passive and active shoulder range of motion due to a fibroplastic proliferation of the joint capsule. Adhesive capsulitis most commonly occurs in middle-aged women and has a high association with hypothyroidism and diabetes. Most cases will resolve with conservative treatment within 6 months. The key to treatment is continued shoulder motion with physical therapy and a home stretching program. The focus should be a gentle and progressive stretching program. An intra-articular corticosteroid injection has been shown to improve passive motion and shorten the overall duration of symptoms.  Functional deficits after >6 months of physical therapy warrant discussion about surgical options which may include a manipulation under anesthesia or an arthroscopic capsular release. Sling immobilization is contraindicated because it likely will promote further joint contracture and prolonged recovery. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Redler, Lauren H. MD; Dennis, Elizabeth R. MS, MD. Treatment of Adhesive Capsulitis of the Shoulder. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 27(12):p e544-e554, June 15, 2019. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-17-00606
    2. Wang W, Shi M, Zhou C, Shi Z, Cai X, Lin T, Yan S. Effectiveness of corticosteroid injections in adhesive capsulitis of shoulder: a meta-analysis. Medicine. 2017 Jul;96(28).
    Incorrect

    Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by functional loss of both passive and active shoulder range of motion due to a fibroplastic proliferation of the joint capsule. Adhesive capsulitis most commonly occurs in middle-aged women and has a high association with hypothyroidism and diabetes. Most cases will resolve with conservative treatment within 6 months. The key to treatment is continued shoulder motion with physical therapy and a home stretching program. The focus should be a gentle and progressive stretching program. An intra-articular corticosteroid injection has been shown to improve passive motion and shorten the overall duration of symptoms.  Functional deficits after >6 months of physical therapy warrant discussion about surgical options which may include a manipulation under anesthesia or an arthroscopic capsular release. Sling immobilization is contraindicated because it likely will promote further joint contracture and prolonged recovery. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Redler, Lauren H. MD; Dennis, Elizabeth R. MS, MD. Treatment of Adhesive Capsulitis of the Shoulder. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 27(12):p e544-e554, June 15, 2019. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-17-00606
    2. Wang W, Shi M, Zhou C, Shi Z, Cai X, Lin T, Yan S. Effectiveness of corticosteroid injections in adhesive capsulitis of shoulder: a meta-analysis. Medicine. 2017 Jul;96(28).
  61. Question 61 of 86
    61. Question

    A 42 year old women presents to your office with pain over the lateral aspect of her right foot for several months. She has noticed a bump on the lateral side of the foot that is sore to the touch after a day of walking or exercise. On physical exam the patient has soft-tissue swelling under the fifth metatarsal head and a prominent lateral eminence of the fifth metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. She has pain with passive motion at the 5th MTP joint. AP and lateral x-rays are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    The patient has a bunionette deformity, also known as a Tailors bunion, which is characterized by a prominence of the lateral aspect of the 5th metatarsal head. Bunionettes are often seen in adolescents and adults and are more common in females. The deformity results from compression of the forefoot and can lead to forefoot pain and callus formation over the prominence. Nonoperative management is the first line treatment of bunionette deformities and includes NSAIDS, shoe wear modification to increase the toe box and semi rigid soles, orthotics, keratosis padding, and/or callous shaving. Non-operative treatment is generally successful, but should symptoms become persistent and severe, surgical options are available including a lateral condylectomy and osteotomy procedures. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Shi, Glenn Guangyu MD; Humayun, Ammar MD; Whalen, Joseph L. MD, PhD; Kitaoka, Harold B. MD. Management of Bunionette Deformity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 26(19):p e396-e404, October 1, 2018. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-17-00345
    2. Koti M, Maffulli N. Bunionette. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2001 Jul;83(7):1076-82. doi: 10.2106/00004623-200107000-00016. PMID: 11451980.

     

    Incorrect

    The patient has a bunionette deformity, also known as a Tailors bunion, which is characterized by a prominence of the lateral aspect of the 5th metatarsal head. Bunionettes are often seen in adolescents and adults and are more common in females. The deformity results from compression of the forefoot and can lead to forefoot pain and callus formation over the prominence. Nonoperative management is the first line treatment of bunionette deformities and includes NSAIDS, shoe wear modification to increase the toe box and semi rigid soles, orthotics, keratosis padding, and/or callous shaving. Non-operative treatment is generally successful, but should symptoms become persistent and severe, surgical options are available including a lateral condylectomy and osteotomy procedures. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Shi, Glenn Guangyu MD; Humayun, Ammar MD; Whalen, Joseph L. MD, PhD; Kitaoka, Harold B. MD. Management of Bunionette Deformity. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 26(19):p e396-e404, October 1, 2018. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-17-00345
    2. Koti M, Maffulli N. Bunionette. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2001 Jul;83(7):1076-82. doi: 10.2106/00004623-200107000-00016. PMID: 11451980.

     

  62. Question 62 of 86
    62. Question

    An 83 year old female presents to your office with right forearm pain for the last few weeks. She has baseline dementia and presents with a nurse from the assisted living facility she resides at. The patient and nurse are unaware of any recent falls or known injury. On physical exam she has pain to palpation over the proximal forearm without bruising or deformity. AP and lateral x-rays of the right forearm are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The patient presents with a pathological fracture to the proximal radius. After calling the nursing facility where she resides, it was determined she has a history of breast cancer diagnosis 10 years ago but was in remission. Bone is the most common site for first distant relapse of breast cancer. Most pathological fractures are due to metastatic disease with lung, breast, thyroid, renal and prostate being the most common primary sources. In patients over 40, metastatic disease is 500 times more likely than a primary bone sarcoma. Aggressive features on this patient’s bone lesion that indicates a pathological fracture include cortical disruption and periosteal reaction. X-ray is the best modality in characterizing a pathological fracture. Pathological fractures have altered healing biology due to destructive cancer cells and may be slow to heal, or may never heal, depending on life expectancy. External beam radiation therapy may be used to treat pathological fractures from spreading and help relieve pain. Most impending or pathological fractures of the upper extremity can be treated in a sling for comfort. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Rizzo SE, Kenan S. Pathologic Fractures. [Updated 2023 Jan 15]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2023 Jan-.
    2. Hamaoka T, Madewell JE, Podoloff DA, Hortobagyi GN, Ueno NT. Bone imaging in metastatic breast cancer. Journal of Clinical Oncology. 2004 Jul 15;22(14):2942-53.
    Incorrect

    The patient presents with a pathological fracture to the proximal radius. After calling the nursing facility where she resides, it was determined she has a history of breast cancer diagnosis 10 years ago but was in remission. Bone is the most common site for first distant relapse of breast cancer. Most pathological fractures are due to metastatic disease with lung, breast, thyroid, renal and prostate being the most common primary sources. In patients over 40, metastatic disease is 500 times more likely than a primary bone sarcoma. Aggressive features on this patient’s bone lesion that indicates a pathological fracture include cortical disruption and periosteal reaction. X-ray is the best modality in characterizing a pathological fracture. Pathological fractures have altered healing biology due to destructive cancer cells and may be slow to heal, or may never heal, depending on life expectancy. External beam radiation therapy may be used to treat pathological fractures from spreading and help relieve pain. Most impending or pathological fractures of the upper extremity can be treated in a sling for comfort. 1,2

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Rizzo SE, Kenan S. Pathologic Fractures. [Updated 2023 Jan 15]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2023 Jan-.
    2. Hamaoka T, Madewell JE, Podoloff DA, Hortobagyi GN, Ueno NT. Bone imaging in metastatic breast cancer. Journal of Clinical Oncology. 2004 Jul 15;22(14):2942-53.
  63. Question 63 of 86
    63. Question

    A 62 year old female presents to your office with 2-3 weeks of severe lower back pain. She denies a known injury or precipitating event. She denies any radiation of pain down her legs and she has no bowel or bladder changes. On physical exam she has severe pain to palpation over the L4 vertebral body with surrounding paraspinous muscle spasm. Her lower extremity motor and sensation is intact. Lateral view x-ray in figure 1 shows a L4 lumbar compression fracture. Sagittal STIR MRI image in figure 2 shows an acute or subacute L4 compression fracture with 30% loss of vertebral height. There is mild retropulsion of the fracture fragment into the spinal canal causing moderate stenosis. The patient is interested in pain relief options including kyphoplasty. Which statement is true regarding kyphoplasty?

    Correct

    Osteoporosis related lumbar compression fractures are a common injury in the aging population. Patients can often be treated conservatively with a corset brace, NSAIDs, and if necessary, narcotic pain medication. Pain associated with lumbar compression fractures can last much longer than other fracture types, in some cases lasting up to 4-6 months. Cement augmentation with kyphoplasty is another treatment option that can help relieve lower back pain and preserve vertebral height in patients who have failed at least 2-3 weeks of conservative treatment. MRI should be performed if a kyphoplasty is considered. MRI is critical in determining the age of fracture, with bony edema signaling an acute or subacute process. The absence of bony edema on MRI indicates a chronic fracture which is not amenable to kyphoplasty. Time to kyphoplasty is controversial with most agreeing non-operative treatment should be trialed for 2-3 weeks after onset of symptoms. The average time to kyphoplasty after onset of symptoms in one large meta-analysis was 10 weeks, with the same study showing improved outcomes with surgery over conservative care. Kyphoplasty has not been shown to increase the risk of adjacent, or secondary, vertebral fractures. Relative contraindications for kyphoplasty include bone retropulsion, the presence of radiculopathy, and greater than 70% vertebral height loss. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Halvachizadeh S, Stalder AL, Bellut D, Hoppe S. Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis of 3 Treatment Arms for Vertebral Compression Fractures. A Comparison of Improvement in Pain, Adjacent-Level Fractures, and Quality of Life Between Vertebroplasty, Kyphoplasty, and Nonoperative Management. JBJS Rev, 9(10):e21.00045
    2. Savage JW, Schroeder GD, Anderson PA. Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty for the treatment of osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2014 Oct;22(10):653-64.
    Incorrect

    Osteoporosis related lumbar compression fractures are a common injury in the aging population. Patients can often be treated conservatively with a corset brace, NSAIDs, and if necessary, narcotic pain medication. Pain associated with lumbar compression fractures can last much longer than other fracture types, in some cases lasting up to 4-6 months. Cement augmentation with kyphoplasty is another treatment option that can help relieve lower back pain and preserve vertebral height in patients who have failed at least 2-3 weeks of conservative treatment. MRI should be performed if a kyphoplasty is considered. MRI is critical in determining the age of fracture, with bony edema signaling an acute or subacute process. The absence of bony edema on MRI indicates a chronic fracture which is not amenable to kyphoplasty. Time to kyphoplasty is controversial with most agreeing non-operative treatment should be trialed for 2-3 weeks after onset of symptoms. The average time to kyphoplasty after onset of symptoms in one large meta-analysis was 10 weeks, with the same study showing improved outcomes with surgery over conservative care. Kyphoplasty has not been shown to increase the risk of adjacent, or secondary, vertebral fractures. Relative contraindications for kyphoplasty include bone retropulsion, the presence of radiculopathy, and greater than 70% vertebral height loss. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Halvachizadeh S, Stalder AL, Bellut D, Hoppe S. Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis of 3 Treatment Arms for Vertebral Compression Fractures. A Comparison of Improvement in Pain, Adjacent-Level Fractures, and Quality of Life Between Vertebroplasty, Kyphoplasty, and Nonoperative Management. JBJS Rev, 9(10):e21.00045
    2. Savage JW, Schroeder GD, Anderson PA. Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty for the treatment of osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2014 Oct;22(10):653-64.
  64. Question 64 of 86
    64. Question

    A 16 year old male presents to your office with mild lower back pain for several months. He denies any pain radiating down the legs or difficulty with walking. He denies a history of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis or a history of spine infection. His mom believes his pediatrician mentioned he had a spinal deformity years ago. AP and lateral x-ray of the lumbar spine are shown in figures 1 and 2. On physical exam he has mild lower back stiffness when he bends to touch his toes otherwise no pain with rotation and extension of the back. His motor and sensation are intact in his lower extremities.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Correct

    The patient presents with a congenital vertebral synostosis (CVS) at L1-L2.  A congenital lumbar synostosis is caused by failure of lumbar spine segmentation resulting in inappropriate vertebral fusion. CVS is generally found incidentally on x-ray as patients are often symptom free. Symptoms can arise if patients develop adjacent segment degeneration or lumbar stenosis. The amount of fusion can vary from partial or complete fusion of the vertebral endplates, facet joints, laminae, and spinous processes. Complete vs partial fusion depends on early or late failure of normal development. Complete vertebral fusion suggests early developmental failure. The majority of congenital fusions occur in the cervical spine, where they are often associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome. The patient was advised to perform core strengthening at home and monitor symptoms. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Volk AM, Mathkour M, Iwanaga J, Dumont AS, Tubbs RS. A Comprehensive Review of Congenital Lumbar Synostosis and Associated Findings. Cureus. 2021 Oct 24;13(10):e19013. doi: 10.7759/cureus.19013. PMID: 34824930; PMCID: PMC8610779.
    2. Paraskevas GK, Noussios G, Koutsouflianiotis KN, Iliou K. Congenital synostosis of cervical vertebrae: an osteological study and review of the literature. Cureus. 2019 Oct 28;11(10).
    Incorrect

    The patient presents with a congenital vertebral synostosis (CVS) at L1-L2.  A congenital lumbar synostosis is caused by failure of lumbar spine segmentation resulting in inappropriate vertebral fusion. CVS is generally found incidentally on x-ray as patients are often symptom free. Symptoms can arise if patients develop adjacent segment degeneration or lumbar stenosis. The amount of fusion can vary from partial or complete fusion of the vertebral endplates, facet joints, laminae, and spinous processes. Complete vs partial fusion depends on early or late failure of normal development. Complete vertebral fusion suggests early developmental failure. The majority of congenital fusions occur in the cervical spine, where they are often associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome. The patient was advised to perform core strengthening at home and monitor symptoms. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Volk AM, Mathkour M, Iwanaga J, Dumont AS, Tubbs RS. A Comprehensive Review of Congenital Lumbar Synostosis and Associated Findings. Cureus. 2021 Oct 24;13(10):e19013. doi: 10.7759/cureus.19013. PMID: 34824930; PMCID: PMC8610779.
    2. Paraskevas GK, Noussios G, Koutsouflianiotis KN, Iliou K. Congenital synostosis of cervical vertebrae: an osteological study and review of the literature. Cureus. 2019 Oct 28;11(10).
  65. Question 65 of 86
    65. Question

    A 16 year old male presents to your office with mild lower back pain for several months. He denies any pain radiating down the legs or difficulty with walking. He denies a history of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis or a history of spine infection. His mom believes his pediatrician mentioned he had a spinal deformity years ago. AP and lateral x-ray of the lumbar spine are shown in figures 1 and 2. On physical exam he has mild lower back stiffness when he bends to touch his toes otherwise no pain with rotation and extension of the back. His motor and sensation are intact in his lower extremities.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Correct

    The patient presents with a congenital vertebral synostosis (CVS) at L1-L2.  A congenital lumbar synostosis is caused by failure of lumbar spine segmentation resulting in inappropriate vertebral fusion. CVS is generally found incidentally on x-ray as patients are often symptom free. Symptoms can arise if patients develop adjacent segment degeneration or lumbar stenosis. The amount of fusion can vary from partial or complete fusion of the vertebral endplates, facet joints, laminae, and spinous processes. Complete vs partial fusion depends on early or late failure of normal development. Complete vertebral fusion suggests early developmental failure. The majority of congenital fusions occur in the cervical spine, where they are often associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome. The patient was advised to perform core strengthening at home and monitor symptoms. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Volk AM, Mathkour M, Iwanaga J, Dumont AS, Tubbs RS. A Comprehensive Review of Congenital Lumbar Synostosis and Associated Findings. Cureus. 2021 Oct 24;13(10):e19013. doi: 10.7759/cureus.19013. PMID: 34824930; PMCID: PMC8610779.
    2. Paraskevas GK, Noussios G, Koutsouflianiotis KN, Iliou K. Congenital synostosis of cervical vertebrae: an osteological study and review of the literature. Cureus. 2019 Oct 28;11(10).
    Incorrect

    The patient presents with a congenital vertebral synostosis (CVS) at L1-L2.  A congenital lumbar synostosis is caused by failure of lumbar spine segmentation resulting in inappropriate vertebral fusion. CVS is generally found incidentally on x-ray as patients are often symptom free. Symptoms can arise if patients develop adjacent segment degeneration or lumbar stenosis. The amount of fusion can vary from partial or complete fusion of the vertebral endplates, facet joints, laminae, and spinous processes. Complete vs partial fusion depends on early or late failure of normal development. Complete vertebral fusion suggests early developmental failure. The majority of congenital fusions occur in the cervical spine, where they are often associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome. The patient was advised to perform core strengthening at home and monitor symptoms. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Volk AM, Mathkour M, Iwanaga J, Dumont AS, Tubbs RS. A Comprehensive Review of Congenital Lumbar Synostosis and Associated Findings. Cureus. 2021 Oct 24;13(10):e19013. doi: 10.7759/cureus.19013. PMID: 34824930; PMCID: PMC8610779.
    2. Paraskevas GK, Noussios G, Koutsouflianiotis KN, Iliou K. Congenital synostosis of cervical vertebrae: an osteological study and review of the literature. Cureus. 2019 Oct 28;11(10).
  66. Question 66 of 86
    66. Question

    A 22 year old male presents to your office with right hand pain after an injury while installing a dock at his lakefront property this morning. The dock fell suddenly crushing his small finger in between boards. On physical exam of the small finger, he has pain to palpation over the proximal phalanx and his skin is intact. The proximal phalanx is slightly ulnar deviated but the finger does not appear rotated. AP, oblique, and lateral view x-rays are shown in figures 1,2, and 3, respectively. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Proximal phalanx fractures of the hand can be unstable fractures due to the deforming forces placed on the bone. The interosseous muscles insert on the base of the proximal phalanx and can flex the proximal fracture fragment while the flexor and extensor tendons apply a shortening force to the fracture. The most stable nondisplaced transverse fractures can withstand these deforming forces, however, the unstable displaced, comminuted, or oblique fracture patterns tend to displace. Non displaced fractures can be treated with immobilization with the metacarpophalangeal (MCP ) joint in 70-90 degrees of flexion which reduces the displacing forces of the surrounding soft tissue. A removeable boxer fracture splint is a good option for reliable patients otherwise a ulnar gutter cast may be required. Immobilization for 3 weeks is recommended or until fracture healing is found on x-ray, at which time buddy tapping can be resumed for another 3 weeks. Buddy taping can also help with initial immobilization to help with rotational stability. Fractures that are displaced, shortened and unstable often require surgery. Relative indications for surgery include fractures that are angulated, malrotated, or shortened by more than 5 mm. Shortened fractures can result in an extension lag to the finger. Percutaneous fixation is often performed for displaced proximal third fractures where middle and distal third fractures are often treated with open reduction and internal fixation. Because displaced fractures are so unstable, closed reduction and casting is usually not an option unless patients have a contraindication to surgery. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Lögters TT, Lee HH, Gehrmann S, Windolf J, Kaufmann RA. Proximal Phalanx Fracture Management. Hand (N Y). 2018 Jul;13(4):376-383. doi: 10.1177/1558944717735947. Epub 2017 Oct 27. PMID: 29078727; PMCID: PMC6081790.
    2. Kozin, Scott H. MD; Thoder, Joseph J. MD; Lieberman, Glenn MD. Operative Treatment of Metacarpal and Phalangeal Shaft Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 8(2):p 111-121, March 2000.

     

    Incorrect

    Proximal phalanx fractures of the hand can be unstable fractures due to the deforming forces placed on the bone. The interosseous muscles insert on the base of the proximal phalanx and can flex the proximal fracture fragment while the flexor and extensor tendons apply a shortening force to the fracture. The most stable nondisplaced transverse fractures can withstand these deforming forces, however, the unstable displaced, comminuted, or oblique fracture patterns tend to displace. Non displaced fractures can be treated with immobilization with the metacarpophalangeal (MCP ) joint in 70-90 degrees of flexion which reduces the displacing forces of the surrounding soft tissue. A removeable boxer fracture splint is a good option for reliable patients otherwise a ulnar gutter cast may be required. Immobilization for 3 weeks is recommended or until fracture healing is found on x-ray, at which time buddy tapping can be resumed for another 3 weeks. Buddy taping can also help with initial immobilization to help with rotational stability. Fractures that are displaced, shortened and unstable often require surgery. Relative indications for surgery include fractures that are angulated, malrotated, or shortened by more than 5 mm. Shortened fractures can result in an extension lag to the finger. Percutaneous fixation is often performed for displaced proximal third fractures where middle and distal third fractures are often treated with open reduction and internal fixation. Because displaced fractures are so unstable, closed reduction and casting is usually not an option unless patients have a contraindication to surgery. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Lögters TT, Lee HH, Gehrmann S, Windolf J, Kaufmann RA. Proximal Phalanx Fracture Management. Hand (N Y). 2018 Jul;13(4):376-383. doi: 10.1177/1558944717735947. Epub 2017 Oct 27. PMID: 29078727; PMCID: PMC6081790.
    2. Kozin, Scott H. MD; Thoder, Joseph J. MD; Lieberman, Glenn MD. Operative Treatment of Metacarpal and Phalangeal Shaft Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 8(2):p 111-121, March 2000.

     

  67. Question 67 of 86
    67. Question

    A 51 year old female presents to your office with right foot pain for 2 months. She denies a known injury or precipitating event. The pain is made worse when walking and running. The pain is relieved with rest, ice and ibuprofen. AP and lateral x-rays of the right foot are shown in figures 1 and 2. Physical exam of the right foot reveals no obvious deformity. She has pain in her third web space when the third and fourth metatarsal heads are compressed together. Which physical exam finding is associated with the most likely diagnosis?

    Correct

    An interdigital (Morton’s) neuroma is an entrapment neuropathy of the interdigital nerve of the foot. The interdigital nerve at the 3rd webspace  (between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads) is the most commonly affected followed by the 4th webspace. The cause is thought to be from the nerve being compressed by the intermetatarsal ligament, metacarpal heads, and/or the tissues surrounding the MTP joints. Walking in tight shoe ware compresses the intermetatarsal joint and usually worsens symptoms of pain and/or feeling like there is a pebble in the shoe. Symptoms can be reproduced by compressing the metatarsal heads together. A palpable click when squeezing the metatarsals together is considered a positive Mulder sign. MRI and US have equal sensitivity in diagnosing Morton’s neuroma but are only used if the clinical picture is unclear. An interdigital injection should be performed to make the most accurate diagnosis. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Pomeroy, Gregory MD; Wilton, James DPM; Anthony, Steven DO. Entrapment Neuropathy About the Foot and Ankle: An Update. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 23(1):p 58-66, January 2015. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-23-01-58
    2. Bignotti B, Signori A, Sormani MP, Molfetta L, Martinoli C, Tagliafico A. Ultrasound versus magnetic resonance imaging for Morton neuroma: systematic review and meta-analysis. European radiology. 2015 Aug;25:2254-62.
    Incorrect

    An interdigital (Morton’s) neuroma is an entrapment neuropathy of the interdigital nerve of the foot. The interdigital nerve at the 3rd webspace  (between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads) is the most commonly affected followed by the 4th webspace. The cause is thought to be from the nerve being compressed by the intermetatarsal ligament, metacarpal heads, and/or the tissues surrounding the MTP joints. Walking in tight shoe ware compresses the intermetatarsal joint and usually worsens symptoms of pain and/or feeling like there is a pebble in the shoe. Symptoms can be reproduced by compressing the metatarsal heads together. A palpable click when squeezing the metatarsals together is considered a positive Mulder sign. MRI and US have equal sensitivity in diagnosing Morton’s neuroma but are only used if the clinical picture is unclear. An interdigital injection should be performed to make the most accurate diagnosis. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Pomeroy, Gregory MD; Wilton, James DPM; Anthony, Steven DO. Entrapment Neuropathy About the Foot and Ankle: An Update. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 23(1):p 58-66, January 2015. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-23-01-58
    2. Bignotti B, Signori A, Sormani MP, Molfetta L, Martinoli C, Tagliafico A. Ultrasound versus magnetic resonance imaging for Morton neuroma: systematic review and meta-analysis. European radiology. 2015 Aug;25:2254-62.
  68. Question 68 of 86
    68. Question

    A 31 year old female presents to your office with left ankle pain after a fall 2 days ago. She slipped on ice and the ankle twisted from underneath her. On physical exam of the ankle she has moderate swelling over the lateral distal fibula and medial ankle. She has tenderness to palpation over the lateral ankle and medial deltoid ligament. AP and lateral x-rays are shown in figures 1 and 2. Which statement below is true about this patient’s fracture pattern?

    Correct

    Knowing how to differentiate stable and unstable ankles fractures is critical in determining which injuries would do better with surgical treatment. Ankle stability is provided by the bones of the ankle and the surrounding ligament structures. The lateral ligaments include the anterior talofibular (ATFL), calcaneofibular (CFL) and posterior talofibular (PTFL).  The medial side of the ankle is stabilized by the deltoid ligament and the syndesmosis between the fibula and tibia is stabilized by the anterior and posterior inferior tibiofibular ligaments (AITFL and PITFL) and the interosseus ligament. Fracture patterns help dictate if a fracture is stable and if ligament structures have been injured. For instance, the more proximal that a fibular fracture occurs the more likely it is unstable. Medial sided deltoid tenderness on physical exam was once thought to indicate an unstable injury, however tenderness may indicate a superficial deltoid injury only and the stronger deep fibers may remain intact. A complete deltoid rupture will show medial clear space widening and lateral talar shift on mortise view x-ray indicating a unstable injury. If a complete deltoid injury is suspected (high fibular fracture, syndesmosis tenderness, normal initial x-rays) a weight bearing x-ray can be obtained 7-10 days after the injury to the stress the joint. MRI has not been shown to reliably, or accurately, determine a partial vs. complete deltoid rupture and is not recommended for ankle fractures.

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Lampridis V, Gougoulias N, Sakellariou A. Stability in ankle fractures: diagnosis and treatment. EFORT open reviews. 2018 May;3(5):294.
    2. Nortunen S, Lepojärvi S, Savola O, Niinimäki J, Ohtonen P, Flinkkilä T, Lantto I, Kortekangas T, Pakarinen H. Stability assessment of the ankle mortise in supination-external rotation-type ankle fractures: lack of additional diagnostic value of MRI. JBJS. 2014 Nov 19;96(22):1855-62.
    Incorrect

    Knowing how to differentiate stable and unstable ankles fractures is critical in determining which injuries would do better with surgical treatment. Ankle stability is provided by the bones of the ankle and the surrounding ligament structures. The lateral ligaments include the anterior talofibular (ATFL), calcaneofibular (CFL) and posterior talofibular (PTFL).  The medial side of the ankle is stabilized by the deltoid ligament and the syndesmosis between the fibula and tibia is stabilized by the anterior and posterior inferior tibiofibular ligaments (AITFL and PITFL) and the interosseus ligament. Fracture patterns help dictate if a fracture is stable and if ligament structures have been injured. For instance, the more proximal that a fibular fracture occurs the more likely it is unstable. Medial sided deltoid tenderness on physical exam was once thought to indicate an unstable injury, however tenderness may indicate a superficial deltoid injury only and the stronger deep fibers may remain intact. A complete deltoid rupture will show medial clear space widening and lateral talar shift on mortise view x-ray indicating a unstable injury. If a complete deltoid injury is suspected (high fibular fracture, syndesmosis tenderness, normal initial x-rays) a weight bearing x-ray can be obtained 7-10 days after the injury to the stress the joint. MRI has not been shown to reliably, or accurately, determine a partial vs. complete deltoid rupture and is not recommended for ankle fractures.

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Lampridis V, Gougoulias N, Sakellariou A. Stability in ankle fractures: diagnosis and treatment. EFORT open reviews. 2018 May;3(5):294.
    2. Nortunen S, Lepojärvi S, Savola O, Niinimäki J, Ohtonen P, Flinkkilä T, Lantto I, Kortekangas T, Pakarinen H. Stability assessment of the ankle mortise in supination-external rotation-type ankle fractures: lack of additional diagnostic value of MRI. JBJS. 2014 Nov 19;96(22):1855-62.
  69. Question 69 of 86
    69. Question

    A 38 year old female presents to your office with left elbow pain and instability for 2 months. She injured the elbow when lifting weights over her head during a cross fit competition. She felt a pop in the elbow at the time of injury and has not been able to lift weight over her head since. On physical exam she has noticeable laxity to valgus stress of the elbow. She has mild swelling and pain over the medial elbow. Coronal MRI image of the elbow shows a partial tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The primary soft tissue restraint to a valgus force to the elbow includes the flexor pronator mass, the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), and the joint capsule. The most common presentation of a UCL injury is medial elbow pain in an overhead throwing athlete. Repetitive throwing causing attritional wear of the UCL which tears over time. In non throwing athletes, the UCL is more likely to be injured by an acute traumatic event that causes a valgus load to the elbow such as gymnastics and mixed martial arts. If a UCL tear is suspected, MRI is the study of choice to confirm the diagnosis and determine if the tear is partial vs. complete. In overhead athletes, the results of nonoperative treatment are poor with less than half of pitchers able to return to throwing at a preinjury level. UCL injuries in non-throwing athletes can usually be managed with nonoperative treatment including a period of activity restrictions, bracing, and rehab.  Platelet rich plasma injections into the UCL with a structured rehab program has shown promising results for improved stability and earlier return to play. Partial tears may return to sports as early as 4-6 weeks whereas complete tears may require 3-4 months and are more likely to require surgery.  Surgery is generally reserved for patients with persistent valgus instability despite > 6 months of non-surgical management. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Swindell, Hasani W. MD; Trofa, David P. MD; Alexander, Frank J. MS, ATC; Sonnenfeld, Julian J. MD; Saltzman, Bryan M. MD; Ahmad, Christopher S. MD. Nonsurgical Management of Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries. JAAOS: Global Research and Reviews 5(4):e20.00257, April 2021. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOSGlobal-D-20-00257
    2. Erickson B, Romeo A. The Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injury Evaluation and Treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 99(1):76-86 | Current Concepts Review | January 04, 2017
    Incorrect

    The primary soft tissue restraint to a valgus force to the elbow includes the flexor pronator mass, the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), and the joint capsule. The most common presentation of a UCL injury is medial elbow pain in an overhead throwing athlete. Repetitive throwing causing attritional wear of the UCL which tears over time. In non throwing athletes, the UCL is more likely to be injured by an acute traumatic event that causes a valgus load to the elbow such as gymnastics and mixed martial arts. If a UCL tear is suspected, MRI is the study of choice to confirm the diagnosis and determine if the tear is partial vs. complete. In overhead athletes, the results of nonoperative treatment are poor with less than half of pitchers able to return to throwing at a preinjury level. UCL injuries in non-throwing athletes can usually be managed with nonoperative treatment including a period of activity restrictions, bracing, and rehab.  Platelet rich plasma injections into the UCL with a structured rehab program has shown promising results for improved stability and earlier return to play. Partial tears may return to sports as early as 4-6 weeks whereas complete tears may require 3-4 months and are more likely to require surgery.  Surgery is generally reserved for patients with persistent valgus instability despite > 6 months of non-surgical management. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Swindell, Hasani W. MD; Trofa, David P. MD; Alexander, Frank J. MS, ATC; Sonnenfeld, Julian J. MD; Saltzman, Bryan M. MD; Ahmad, Christopher S. MD. Nonsurgical Management of Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries. JAAOS: Global Research and Reviews 5(4):e20.00257, April 2021. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOSGlobal-D-20-00257
    2. Erickson B, Romeo A. The Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injury Evaluation and Treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 99(1):76-86 | Current Concepts Review | January 04, 2017
  70. Question 70 of 86
    70. Question

    A 66 year old female presents to your office with a history of right hip dislocation. She was getting out of bed 2 days ago when she rotated her leg and felt a painful loud pop in the hip. She was unable to bear weight and was brought to the hospital via ambulance. She had a right total hip arthroplasty two years ago with a posterior approach and was doing well until this episode. AP x-ray taken in the ED (figure 1) shows a posterior hip dislocation. On physical exam in the ED the patient was noted to have a shortened, adducted, and internally rotated right lower extremity. The hip was closed reduced successfully in the ED and a post reduction x-ray is shown in figure 2. Which reduction maneuver was likely used to close reduce the hip?

    Correct

    A hip dislocation is one of the most common complications seen after total hip arthroplasty. Most hip dislocations occur within 3 weeks post op due to inadequate soft tissue healing whereas late dislocations generally occur from failure of implants. Patients who sustain a hip dislocation usually report a pop or clunk sensation and an inability to bear weight on the affected extremity. On physical exam of a posterior hip dislocation the affected extremity is usually shortened, adducted and internally rotated. An anterior hip dislocation presents with a flexed, abducted and externally rotated extremity. Treatment of a total hip dislocation includes a closed reduction under sedation if there is no periprosthetic fracture. The reduction maneuver is guided by the direction of the dislocation on radiographs. A posterior dislocation is reduced with the patient supine and traction and internal rotation is initially placed, followed by external rotation when the femoral head has cleared the acetabular rim. Reducing an anterior dislocation is the opposite; initial traction and externally rotation followed by internal rotation when the head clears the cup. 1,2

    Answer A

     

    References

    1. Saiz AM, Lum ZC, Pereira GC. Etiology, evaluation, and management of dislocation after primary total hip arthroplasty. JBJS reviews. 2019 Jul 1;7(7):e7.
    2. Soong M, Rubash HE, Macaulay W. Dislocation after total hip arthroplasty. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2004 Sep 1;12(5):314-21.
    Incorrect

    A hip dislocation is one of the most common complications seen after total hip arthroplasty. Most hip dislocations occur within 3 weeks post op due to inadequate soft tissue healing whereas late dislocations generally occur from failure of implants. Patients who sustain a hip dislocation usually report a pop or clunk sensation and an inability to bear weight on the affected extremity. On physical exam of a posterior hip dislocation the affected extremity is usually shortened, adducted and internally rotated. An anterior hip dislocation presents with a flexed, abducted and externally rotated extremity. Treatment of a total hip dislocation includes a closed reduction under sedation if there is no periprosthetic fracture. The reduction maneuver is guided by the direction of the dislocation on radiographs. A posterior dislocation is reduced with the patient supine and traction and internal rotation is initially placed, followed by external rotation when the femoral head has cleared the acetabular rim. Reducing an anterior dislocation is the opposite; initial traction and externally rotation followed by internal rotation when the head clears the cup. 1,2

    Answer A

     

    References

    1. Saiz AM, Lum ZC, Pereira GC. Etiology, evaluation, and management of dislocation after primary total hip arthroplasty. JBJS reviews. 2019 Jul 1;7(7):e7.
    2. Soong M, Rubash HE, Macaulay W. Dislocation after total hip arthroplasty. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2004 Sep 1;12(5):314-21.
  71. Question 71 of 86
    71. Question

    A 37 year old female presents to your office with complaints of right shoulder pain and difficulty lifting her arm overhead. She was doing mixed martial arts last week and landed on her right shoulder during competition. She had immediate pain in the shoulder and over the last week has developed bruising and swelling over the lateral clavicle. On physical exam she has tenderness to palpation over the lateral clavicle but her skin is intact without tenting. The shoulder pain is made worse with forward elevation and horizontal adduction of the right arm. AP x-ray of the right shoulder shows a type II nondisplaced fracture of the lateral clavicle (Figure1). Which statement is true regarding this fracture pattern?

    Correct

    Distal clavicle fractures represent the minority of clavicle fractures (most common is midshaft) and can be prone to nonunion. The conoid (medial) and trapezoid (lateral) ligaments are known as the CC ligaments (coracoclavicular ligaments) and provide resistance to superior migration of the lateral clavicle. Disruption of these ligaments can cause an unstable fracture pattern. Fractures that occur lateral to the CC ligaments and outside of the AC joint are stable type 1 injuries. Fractures that occur between or at the attachment sites of the CC ligaments (type 2) are prone to poor healing with non-union rates between 28% and 44%, with most nonunions described as lack of bone bridging 12 months from injury. Nondisplaced and minimally displaced type 2 fractures (presence of cortical contact between bone ends of the fracture) can be treated nonoperatively with a sling for 2 weeks and lifting restrictions for 6-8 weeks. Nonunion is more common with displaced type II fractures and in patients with advanced age. Often times patients who do go on to non-union with distal clavicle fractures with be asymptomatic which further advocates for non-operative treatment. The risk of nonunion and displacement should be discussed with patients at their initial visit and followed closely with serial radiographs through 6-8 weeks. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Van der Meijden OA, Gaskill TR, Millett PJ. Treatment of clavicle fractures: current concepts review. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2012 Mar 1;21(3):423-9.
    2. Banerjee R, Waterman B, Padalecki J, Robertson W. Management of distal clavicle fractures. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2011 Jul 1;19(7):392-401.
    Incorrect

    Distal clavicle fractures represent the minority of clavicle fractures (most common is midshaft) and can be prone to nonunion. The conoid (medial) and trapezoid (lateral) ligaments are known as the CC ligaments (coracoclavicular ligaments) and provide resistance to superior migration of the lateral clavicle. Disruption of these ligaments can cause an unstable fracture pattern. Fractures that occur lateral to the CC ligaments and outside of the AC joint are stable type 1 injuries. Fractures that occur between or at the attachment sites of the CC ligaments (type 2) are prone to poor healing with non-union rates between 28% and 44%, with most nonunions described as lack of bone bridging 12 months from injury. Nondisplaced and minimally displaced type 2 fractures (presence of cortical contact between bone ends of the fracture) can be treated nonoperatively with a sling for 2 weeks and lifting restrictions for 6-8 weeks. Nonunion is more common with displaced type II fractures and in patients with advanced age. Often times patients who do go on to non-union with distal clavicle fractures with be asymptomatic which further advocates for non-operative treatment. The risk of nonunion and displacement should be discussed with patients at their initial visit and followed closely with serial radiographs through 6-8 weeks. 1,2

    Answer A.

     

    References

    1. Van der Meijden OA, Gaskill TR, Millett PJ. Treatment of clavicle fractures: current concepts review. Journal of shoulder and elbow surgery. 2012 Mar 1;21(3):423-9.
    2. Banerjee R, Waterman B, Padalecki J, Robertson W. Management of distal clavicle fractures. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2011 Jul 1;19(7):392-401.
  72. Question 72 of 86
    72. Question

    A 67 year old female presents to your office with left wrist pain after a fall 4 days ago. She has noticed significant swelling and pain with wrist motion after the fall. On physical exam she has tenderness to palpation over the dorsal wrist with point tenderness over the triquetrum. AP, lateral, and oblique view x-rays show a dorsal avulsion triquetral fracture (figures 1,2,3). What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    The wedge-shaped triquetrum is in the proximal row of the carpus and articulates with the lunate, hamate, and pisiform. Triquetral fractures are the second most common type of carpal fracture behind scaphoid fractures. The most common form of fracture is a dorsal avulsion fracture as the strong dorsal ligaments of the wrist can pull a sleave of bone off the triquetrum. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall on an outstretched hand with the wrist in extension and ulnar deviation. Triquetral fractures are often difficult to detect on radiographs but given the benign nature of the injury, advanced imaging such as MRI or CT are rarely used unless other injuries are suspected. On physical exam patients will have pain and swelling on the ulnar side of the wrist. Treatment involves a wrist splint or cast for 3-4 weeks followed by early motion. Wrist pain should subside by 6-8 weeks. Repeat x-rays are usually not helpful in guiding treatment as many dorsal avulsion fractures will go on to an asymptomatic fibrous non-union (doesn’t look healed on x-ray). 1,2

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Guo RC, Cardenas JM, Wu CH. Triquetral fractures overview. Current Reviews in Musculoskeletal Medicine. 2021 Apr;14:101-6.
    2. Hopkins A, Bowman SR, Preketes AP, Dowd MB. Triquetral fractures—a retrospective, multi-centre study of management and outcomes. Australasian Journal of Plastic Surgery. 2020 Mar 23;3(1):11-5.
    Incorrect

    The wedge-shaped triquetrum is in the proximal row of the carpus and articulates with the lunate, hamate, and pisiform. Triquetral fractures are the second most common type of carpal fracture behind scaphoid fractures. The most common form of fracture is a dorsal avulsion fracture as the strong dorsal ligaments of the wrist can pull a sleave of bone off the triquetrum. The most common mechanism of injury is a fall on an outstretched hand with the wrist in extension and ulnar deviation. Triquetral fractures are often difficult to detect on radiographs but given the benign nature of the injury, advanced imaging such as MRI or CT are rarely used unless other injuries are suspected. On physical exam patients will have pain and swelling on the ulnar side of the wrist. Treatment involves a wrist splint or cast for 3-4 weeks followed by early motion. Wrist pain should subside by 6-8 weeks. Repeat x-rays are usually not helpful in guiding treatment as many dorsal avulsion fractures will go on to an asymptomatic fibrous non-union (doesn’t look healed on x-ray). 1,2

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Guo RC, Cardenas JM, Wu CH. Triquetral fractures overview. Current Reviews in Musculoskeletal Medicine. 2021 Apr;14:101-6.
    2. Hopkins A, Bowman SR, Preketes AP, Dowd MB. Triquetral fractures—a retrospective, multi-centre study of management and outcomes. Australasian Journal of Plastic Surgery. 2020 Mar 23;3(1):11-5.
  73. Question 73 of 86
    73. Question

    A 4 year old girl is brought to your office by her parents with right ankle pain after tripping at the playground 2 days ago. She is having difficulty bearing weight on the ankle and she is asking for her parents to carry her to get around. On physical exam she has swelling and tenderness to palpation over the lateral ankle. It is difficult to pinpoint the exact location of the tenderness as she is both tender over the distal fibula and the anterior talofibular ligament. AP and lateral x-rays of the right ankle are shown in figures 1 and 2. Which is true about pediatric ankle injuries?

    Correct

    Ankle injuries are very common in the pediatric population and can be a challenge to determine the cause of pain. Differentiating a Salter Harris (SH) I fracture of the distal fibula vs. a lateral ankle sprain is the most common diagnostic dilemma as both have a similar injury mechanism, physical exam, and radiographic findings. Boutis et al. performed an MRI one week after injury in pediatric patients (mean age of 8) who were diagnosed with SH I fractures and found that over 80% had a ligament injury. A repeat ankle x-ray taken 4 weeks after injury showing periosteal new bone formation is one of the few ways to confirm a SH I fracture.  An ankle sprain and a SH I fracture can both be treated with a walking boot, an air stirrup brace, or a cast for 3-4 weeks with activity modification for 1-2 weeks thereafter. An air stirrup ankle brace offered an earlier return to activities and was preferred over casting by most kids with stable ankle fractures. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

     

    1. Shirley, Eric D. MD; Maguire, Kathleen Joan MD; Mantica, Abigail Louise MD; Kruse, Richard Wayne DO, MBA. Alternatives to Traditional Cast Immobilization in Pediatric Patients. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(1):p e20-e27, January 1, 2020. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-18-00152
    2. Hofsli M, Torfing T, Al-Aubaidi Z. The proportion of distal fibula Salter–Harris type I epiphyseal fracture in the paediatric population with acute ankle injury: a prospective MRI study. Journal of Pediatric Orthopaedics B. 2016 Mar 1;25(2):126-32.
    Incorrect

    Ankle injuries are very common in the pediatric population and can be a challenge to determine the cause of pain. Differentiating a Salter Harris (SH) I fracture of the distal fibula vs. a lateral ankle sprain is the most common diagnostic dilemma as both have a similar injury mechanism, physical exam, and radiographic findings. Boutis et al. performed an MRI one week after injury in pediatric patients (mean age of 8) who were diagnosed with SH I fractures and found that over 80% had a ligament injury. A repeat ankle x-ray taken 4 weeks after injury showing periosteal new bone formation is one of the few ways to confirm a SH I fracture.  An ankle sprain and a SH I fracture can both be treated with a walking boot, an air stirrup brace, or a cast for 3-4 weeks with activity modification for 1-2 weeks thereafter. An air stirrup ankle brace offered an earlier return to activities and was preferred over casting by most kids with stable ankle fractures. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

     

    1. Shirley, Eric D. MD; Maguire, Kathleen Joan MD; Mantica, Abigail Louise MD; Kruse, Richard Wayne DO, MBA. Alternatives to Traditional Cast Immobilization in Pediatric Patients. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(1):p e20-e27, January 1, 2020. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-18-00152
    2. Hofsli M, Torfing T, Al-Aubaidi Z. The proportion of distal fibula Salter–Harris type I epiphyseal fracture in the paediatric population with acute ankle injury: a prospective MRI study. Journal of Pediatric Orthopaedics B. 2016 Mar 1;25(2):126-32.
  74. Question 74 of 86
    74. Question

    A 46 year old female presents to your office with severe right knee pain after fall over her steps 2 days ago. She admits to being intoxicated when she stepped off her deck and fell 4 feet to the ground below. She has developed pain and swelling over the lateral knee and she can’t put weight on the right leg. On physical exam she has tenderness to palpation over the lateral tibial plateau and a moderate joint effusion. AP and lateral x-rays are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step in treatment of this patient?

    Correct

    Most tibial plateau fractures occur on the lateral side and often result from a high energy fall or motor vehicle accident. CT can be helpful if an occult fracture is suspected, or for pre-operative planning, but is not necessary in patients with non-displaced or minimally displaced fractures who qualify for non-operative care. The goal of treatment is to prevent articular step offs that can lead to eventual arthritis. Preventing the need for a future knee replacement is the ultimate goal. Common indications for surgery include > 2mm of articular depression, > 1mm of fracture gap, and condylar widening >5mm. However, Vaartjes et al found that fracture gaps and step-offs of up to 4mm can result in a good functional outcome without the need for an eventual total knee replacement. In general, the greater an articular depression is the more motion loss is expected, leading to a worse functional outcome. This patient has pre-existing arthritis which further makes the argument for non-operative treatment. Non-operative treatment involves a non-weight bearing hinged knee brace or knee immobilizer for 8-12 weeks. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Vaartjes, Thijs P. BSc1; Assink, Nick MSc1; Nijveldt, Robert J. MD, PhD2; van Helden, Svenhjalmar H. MD, PhD2; Bosma, Eelke MD, PhD3; El Moumni, Mostafa MD, PhD1; Duis, Kaj ten MD1; Hogervorst, Mike MD1; Doornberg, Job N. MD, PhD1; de Vries, Jean-Paul P. M. MD, PhD4; Hoekstra, Harm MD, PhD5; IJpma, Frank F. A. MD, PhD1. Functional Outcome After Nonoperative Management of Tibial Plateau Fractures in Skeletally Mature Patients: What Sizes of Gaps and Stepoffs Can be Accepted?. Clinical Orthopaedics and Related Research 480(12):p 2288-2295, December 2022. | DOI: 10.1097/CORR.0000000000002266

     

    2. Pean, Christian A. MD, MS; Driesman, Adam BA; Christiano, Anthony MD; Konda, Sanjit R. MD; Davidovitch, Roy MD; Egol, Kenneth A. MD. Functional and Clinical Outcomes of Nonsurgically Managed

    Incorrect

    Most tibial plateau fractures occur on the lateral side and often result from a high energy fall or motor vehicle accident. CT can be helpful if an occult fracture is suspected, or for pre-operative planning, but is not necessary in patients with non-displaced or minimally displaced fractures who qualify for non-operative care. The goal of treatment is to prevent articular step offs that can lead to eventual arthritis. Preventing the need for a future knee replacement is the ultimate goal. Common indications for surgery include > 2mm of articular depression, > 1mm of fracture gap, and condylar widening >5mm. However, Vaartjes et al found that fracture gaps and step-offs of up to 4mm can result in a good functional outcome without the need for an eventual total knee replacement. In general, the greater an articular depression is the more motion loss is expected, leading to a worse functional outcome. This patient has pre-existing arthritis which further makes the argument for non-operative treatment. Non-operative treatment involves a non-weight bearing hinged knee brace or knee immobilizer for 8-12 weeks. 1,2

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Vaartjes, Thijs P. BSc1; Assink, Nick MSc1; Nijveldt, Robert J. MD, PhD2; van Helden, Svenhjalmar H. MD, PhD2; Bosma, Eelke MD, PhD3; El Moumni, Mostafa MD, PhD1; Duis, Kaj ten MD1; Hogervorst, Mike MD1; Doornberg, Job N. MD, PhD1; de Vries, Jean-Paul P. M. MD, PhD4; Hoekstra, Harm MD, PhD5; IJpma, Frank F. A. MD, PhD1. Functional Outcome After Nonoperative Management of Tibial Plateau Fractures in Skeletally Mature Patients: What Sizes of Gaps and Stepoffs Can be Accepted?. Clinical Orthopaedics and Related Research 480(12):p 2288-2295, December 2022. | DOI: 10.1097/CORR.0000000000002266

     

    2. Pean, Christian A. MD, MS; Driesman, Adam BA; Christiano, Anthony MD; Konda, Sanjit R. MD; Davidovitch, Roy MD; Egol, Kenneth A. MD. Functional and Clinical Outcomes of Nonsurgically Managed

  75. Question 75 of 86
    75. Question

    A 16 year old male presents to your office with chronic back pain over the last 2 years. He believes the pain started during baseball season and has continued intermittently during basketball in the winter. He recently had lower back pain while playing soccer where he had a hard time bending his back. He denies any radiation of pain or changes with bowel and bladder function. On physical exam he has tenderness over the L3 spinous process and paraspinous musculature.  He notes to have very tight hamstrings and has trouble bending at the waist and touching his knees. Sagittal MRI of the lumbar spine shows bone edema at the L3 pedicles bilaterally with early spondylolysis at the right L3 (figure 1). There is no evidence of spondylolisthesis. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Spondylolysis is a defect, or stress fracture, of the pars articularis which is part of the posterior vertebral arch. Spondylolysis is a common sports related injury with one study finding a 48% incidence in young athletes with back pain. All of these athletes had negative x-rays and the spondylolysis was found on MRI.  A common presentation includes a history of activity related chronic back pain without radiculopathy and hamstring tightness of physical exam. High risk sports include football, gymnastics, and diving where there is a lot of repetitive lumbar extension and rotation. Standard AP and lateral radiographs should be taken initially but are often negative. Treatment involves bracing with a lumbar corset brace (to restrict extension and rotation) until the patient achieves painless flexion and extension of the lumbar spine. Physical therapy is then initiated with a gradual increase back into activities. Physical therapy focuses on hamstring stretching, core strengthening, and avoidance of lumbar hyperextension. In early spondylolysis, signal intensity on MRI can take an average of 4-6 months to resolve with conservative treatment. The goal of early spondylolysis is to prevent fracture progression, spinal instability, and spondylolisthesis. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Cavalier, Ralph MD; Herman, Martin J. MD; Cheung, Emilie V. MD; Pizzutillo, Peter D. MD. Spondylolysis and Spondylolisthesis in Children and Adolescents: I. Diagnosis, Natural History, and Nonsurgical Management. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 14(7):p 417-424, July 2006.
    2. Kalichman L, Kim DH, Li L, Guermazi A, Berkin V, Hunter DJ. Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis: prevalence and association with low back pain in the adult community-based population. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2009 Jan 15;34(2):199-205. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e31818edcfd. PMID: 19139672; PMCID: PMC3793342.
    Incorrect

    Spondylolysis is a defect, or stress fracture, of the pars articularis which is part of the posterior vertebral arch. Spondylolysis is a common sports related injury with one study finding a 48% incidence in young athletes with back pain. All of these athletes had negative x-rays and the spondylolysis was found on MRI.  A common presentation includes a history of activity related chronic back pain without radiculopathy and hamstring tightness of physical exam. High risk sports include football, gymnastics, and diving where there is a lot of repetitive lumbar extension and rotation. Standard AP and lateral radiographs should be taken initially but are often negative. Treatment involves bracing with a lumbar corset brace (to restrict extension and rotation) until the patient achieves painless flexion and extension of the lumbar spine. Physical therapy is then initiated with a gradual increase back into activities. Physical therapy focuses on hamstring stretching, core strengthening, and avoidance of lumbar hyperextension. In early spondylolysis, signal intensity on MRI can take an average of 4-6 months to resolve with conservative treatment. The goal of early spondylolysis is to prevent fracture progression, spinal instability, and spondylolisthesis. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Cavalier, Ralph MD; Herman, Martin J. MD; Cheung, Emilie V. MD; Pizzutillo, Peter D. MD. Spondylolysis and Spondylolisthesis in Children and Adolescents: I. Diagnosis, Natural History, and Nonsurgical Management. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 14(7):p 417-424, July 2006.
    2. Kalichman L, Kim DH, Li L, Guermazi A, Berkin V, Hunter DJ. Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis: prevalence and association with low back pain in the adult community-based population. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2009 Jan 15;34(2):199-205. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e31818edcfd. PMID: 19139672; PMCID: PMC3793342.
  76. Question 76 of 86
    76. Question

    A 9 year old girl presents to the ED with right sided leg pain after a bicycle accident a few hours earlier. She was thrown from her bike and landed on her right side. She was unable to bear weight and in significant pain when her parents brought her to the ED. AP x-ray of the right femur is shown in figure 1. On physical exam she has a slightly shorted and rotated right lower extremity. Her foot is pink and warm and all distal pulses are intact. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Femur fractures in the pediatric population are relatively uncommon. Femur fractures that occur in children under 3 years of age should be worked up for potential child abuse. Treatment of these fractures is very much age dependent with ages 0-6 months generally treated with a Pavlik harness, ages 6 months to 4-5 years with a spica cast, and 4 to 11 years with surgery. Children 5 and under generally heal quickly have a thick periosteum which provides additional fracture stability. Surgical fixation of patients 4-5 years and older generally includes either flexible intramedullary nails, submuscular bridge plate fixation, or less commonly, external fixation. Intramedullary nails are ideal for transverse midshaft fractures without distal or proximal extension. Patients with length unstable fractures and proximal or distal extension are good candidates for submuscular bridge plate fixation. The plate is placed at least 2 cm from the physis when possible to avoid growth disturbance and is generally removed when full healing is present. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Greenhill, Dustin A. MD; Herman, Martin J. MD, FAAOS. Treatment of Pediatric Femoral Shaft Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(22):p e1443-e1452, November 15, 2022. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-00415
      2. Li, Ying MD; Hedequist, Daniel J. MD. Submuscular Plating of Pediatric Femur Fracture. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(9):p 596-603, September 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-09-596
    Incorrect

    Femur fractures in the pediatric population are relatively uncommon. Femur fractures that occur in children under 3 years of age should be worked up for potential child abuse. Treatment of these fractures is very much age dependent with ages 0-6 months generally treated with a Pavlik harness, ages 6 months to 4-5 years with a spica cast, and 4 to 11 years with surgery. Children 5 and under generally heal quickly have a thick periosteum which provides additional fracture stability. Surgical fixation of patients 4-5 years and older generally includes either flexible intramedullary nails, submuscular bridge plate fixation, or less commonly, external fixation. Intramedullary nails are ideal for transverse midshaft fractures without distal or proximal extension. Patients with length unstable fractures and proximal or distal extension are good candidates for submuscular bridge plate fixation. The plate is placed at least 2 cm from the physis when possible to avoid growth disturbance and is generally removed when full healing is present. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Greenhill, Dustin A. MD; Herman, Martin J. MD, FAAOS. Treatment of Pediatric Femoral Shaft Fractures. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(22):p e1443-e1452, November 15, 2022. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-22-00415
      2. Li, Ying MD; Hedequist, Daniel J. MD. Submuscular Plating of Pediatric Femur Fracture. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(9):p 596-603, September 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-09-596
  77. Question 77 of 86
    77. Question

    A 56 year old male presents to the ED via ambulance with severe left leg pain after a motor vehicle accident a few hours earlier. He felt a loud painful “clunk” and was unable to walk after the accident. On physical exam he has an obvious deformity to the knee. He has full sensation and palpable distal pulses in the left lower extremity. Trauma AP and lateral x-rays of the left knee are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    Knee dislocations can be caused by a variety of mechanisms from sports related to, to high energy motor vehicle accidents, to lower energy falls in the morbidly obese. The biggest concern after a knee dislocation is injury to the vascular structures around the knee which could lead to irreversible distal tissue ischemia. A closed reduction should be performed as soon as possible in all knee dislocations, and if irreducible, proceed to an open reduction. Patients with diminished or absent distal pulses should have an immediate CT angiogram to rule out popliteal artery injury. Patients with intact distal pulses may have serial physical exams, and if normal after 48 hours, are unlikely to have a vascular injury. Part of the physical exam should include measurement of the ankle brachial index (normal is ABI >.9). Knee dislocations generally have some degree of multi-ligament injury including ACL, PCL, LCL and MCL disruptions. Surgical repair is often performed in a two stage procedure. The MCL is often surgically repaired acutely as delay can cause tendon retraction and scar tissue. Conversely, when the ACL is reconstructed acutely patients tend to have more complications with postoperative motion than with delayed reconstruction. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Stannard JP, Sheils TM, Lopez-Ben RR, McGwin G Jr, Robinson JT, Volgas DA. Vascular injuries in knee dislocations: the role of physical examination in determining the need for arteriography. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 May;86(5):910-5. PMID: 15118031.
    2. Mook WR, Miller MD, Diduch DR, Hertel J. et al. Multiple-ligament Knee Injuries: A Systematic Review of the Timing of Operative Intervention and Postoperative Rehabilitation. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 2009 Dec; 91(12); 2946-5
    Incorrect

    Knee dislocations can be caused by a variety of mechanisms from sports related to, to high energy motor vehicle accidents, to lower energy falls in the morbidly obese. The biggest concern after a knee dislocation is injury to the vascular structures around the knee which could lead to irreversible distal tissue ischemia. A closed reduction should be performed as soon as possible in all knee dislocations, and if irreducible, proceed to an open reduction. Patients with diminished or absent distal pulses should have an immediate CT angiogram to rule out popliteal artery injury. Patients with intact distal pulses may have serial physical exams, and if normal after 48 hours, are unlikely to have a vascular injury. Part of the physical exam should include measurement of the ankle brachial index (normal is ABI >.9). Knee dislocations generally have some degree of multi-ligament injury including ACL, PCL, LCL and MCL disruptions. Surgical repair is often performed in a two stage procedure. The MCL is often surgically repaired acutely as delay can cause tendon retraction and scar tissue. Conversely, when the ACL is reconstructed acutely patients tend to have more complications with postoperative motion than with delayed reconstruction. 1,2

    Answer B.

    References

    1. Stannard JP, Sheils TM, Lopez-Ben RR, McGwin G Jr, Robinson JT, Volgas DA. Vascular injuries in knee dislocations: the role of physical examination in determining the need for arteriography. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 May;86(5):910-5. PMID: 15118031.
    2. Mook WR, Miller MD, Diduch DR, Hertel J. et al. Multiple-ligament Knee Injuries: A Systematic Review of the Timing of Operative Intervention and Postoperative Rehabilitation. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 2009 Dec; 91(12); 2946-5
  78. Question 78 of 86
    78. Question

    A 13 year old male presents to your office with left shoulder pain after a hockey injury a few hours earlier. He collided with another player and had immediate shoulder pain and was unable to continue playing. On physical exam he has pain over the midshaft clavicle without skin tenting. His sensation and motor strength in the left upper extremity is intact. AP xray of the clavicle is shown in figure 1. Which statement is true regarding this patients fracture?

    Correct

    The criteria for surgical fixation of midshaft clavicles fractures is well established in the adult population with >15 mm of shortening, 100% displacement, and/or significant comminution. Criteria for the adolescent population is controversial as there is more healing potential with open growth plates. Rarely do adolescent clavicles fractures go on to nonunion, even with significant displacement. Most adolescent patients can be treated in a sling for a few weeks followed by a return to activities when the shoulder has full painless range of motion, which is generally 6 weeks. Significant clavicle shortening can change the dynamics of shoulder motion potentially causing a change in long term shoulder function. Specifically weakness with shoulder external rotation and abduction have been found after clavicle fractures that have healed shortened. Fractures that are completely displaced (no corticol contact) are prone to nonunion and often benefit from open reduction and internal fixation, which is the most common form of fixation. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Scott ML, Baldwin KD, Mistovich RJ. Operative Versus Nonoperative Treatment of Pediatric and Adolescent Clavicular Fractures. A Systematic Review and Critical Analysis. JBJS Rev, 7(3):e5 | Evidence-Based Systematic Reviews | March 19, 2019
    2. Pandya, Nirav K. MD; Namdari, Surena MD, Msc; Hosalkar, Harish S. MD. Displaced Clavicle Fractures in Adolescents: Facts, Controversies, and Current Trends. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(8):p 498-505, August 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-08-498
    Incorrect

    The criteria for surgical fixation of midshaft clavicles fractures is well established in the adult population with >15 mm of shortening, 100% displacement, and/or significant comminution. Criteria for the adolescent population is controversial as there is more healing potential with open growth plates. Rarely do adolescent clavicles fractures go on to nonunion, even with significant displacement. Most adolescent patients can be treated in a sling for a few weeks followed by a return to activities when the shoulder has full painless range of motion, which is generally 6 weeks. Significant clavicle shortening can change the dynamics of shoulder motion potentially causing a change in long term shoulder function. Specifically weakness with shoulder external rotation and abduction have been found after clavicle fractures that have healed shortened. Fractures that are completely displaced (no corticol contact) are prone to nonunion and often benefit from open reduction and internal fixation, which is the most common form of fixation. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Scott ML, Baldwin KD, Mistovich RJ. Operative Versus Nonoperative Treatment of Pediatric and Adolescent Clavicular Fractures. A Systematic Review and Critical Analysis. JBJS Rev, 7(3):e5 | Evidence-Based Systematic Reviews | March 19, 2019
    2. Pandya, Nirav K. MD; Namdari, Surena MD, Msc; Hosalkar, Harish S. MD. Displaced Clavicle Fractures in Adolescents: Facts, Controversies, and Current Trends. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 20(8):p 498-505, August 2012. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-20-08-498
  79. Question 79 of 86
    79. Question

    A 23 year old male, and self-employed construction worker, presents to your office with left foot pain after twisting his foot two days ago. He admits to losing his footing while walking down stairs and the foot twisted causing immediate pain. On physical exam he has pain over the proximal 5th metatarsal and moderate swelling to the lateral foot. AP xray of the foot is shown in figure 1. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    The patient has a Jones Fracture of the diaphyseal-metaphyseal junction which is notoriously prone to nonunion due to a poor vascular supply in that area. Conservative treatment includes 8+ weeks of non weight bearing in a cast or boot which is often difficult for athletes and laborers. Surgical treatment is recommended in younger active patients as time to union is significantly less with surgery compared to conservative treatment.  Attia et al found an average return to play in athletes at 9.6 weeks after intramedullary screw fixation compared to 13.1 weeks in a nonoperative group. Time to union in the surgical group was 8.2 weeks and 13.7 weeks in the non operative group. The union rate in the operative group was 93.7% and 71.4% in the nonoperative group. For this patient, surgical fixation with a percutaneous screw fixation offers him an earlier to return to weightbearing and work and an increased likelihood of fracture union.

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Metzl, Joshua A. MD; Bowers, Mark W. MD; Anderson, Robert B. MD. Fifth Metatarsal Jones Fractures: Diagnosis and Treatment. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(4):p e470-e479, February 15, 2022. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-21-00542
    2. Yates J, Feeley I, Sasikumar S, Rattan G, Hannigan A, Sheehan E. Jones fracture of the fifth metatarsal: Is operative intervention justified? A systematic review of the literature and meta-analysis of results. The Foot. 2015 Dec 1;25(4):251-7.
    3. Attia AK, Taha T, Kong G, Alhammoud A, Mahmoud K, Myerson M. Return to play and fracture union after the surgical management of Jones fractures in athletes: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Sports Medicine. 2021 Oct;49(12):3422-36.
    Incorrect

    The patient has a Jones Fracture of the diaphyseal-metaphyseal junction which is notoriously prone to nonunion due to a poor vascular supply in that area. Conservative treatment includes 8+ weeks of non weight bearing in a cast or boot which is often difficult for athletes and laborers. Surgical treatment is recommended in younger active patients as time to union is significantly less with surgery compared to conservative treatment.  Attia et al found an average return to play in athletes at 9.6 weeks after intramedullary screw fixation compared to 13.1 weeks in a nonoperative group. Time to union in the surgical group was 8.2 weeks and 13.7 weeks in the non operative group. The union rate in the operative group was 93.7% and 71.4% in the nonoperative group. For this patient, surgical fixation with a percutaneous screw fixation offers him an earlier to return to weightbearing and work and an increased likelihood of fracture union.

    Answer D.

    References

    1. Metzl, Joshua A. MD; Bowers, Mark W. MD; Anderson, Robert B. MD. Fifth Metatarsal Jones Fractures: Diagnosis and Treatment. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 30(4):p e470-e479, February 15, 2022. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-21-00542
    2. Yates J, Feeley I, Sasikumar S, Rattan G, Hannigan A, Sheehan E. Jones fracture of the fifth metatarsal: Is operative intervention justified? A systematic review of the literature and meta-analysis of results. The Foot. 2015 Dec 1;25(4):251-7.
    3. Attia AK, Taha T, Kong G, Alhammoud A, Mahmoud K, Myerson M. Return to play and fracture union after the surgical management of Jones fractures in athletes: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Sports Medicine. 2021 Oct;49(12):3422-36.
  80. Question 80 of 86
    80. Question

    A 5 year old boy is brought to your office with his mother with complaints of right hip pain for 2 days. He has been limping and doesn’t want to bear weight on the right side. The child points to the right hip where the pain is coming from. His mom denies any current fevers or chills or cold symptoms before the hip pain started. On AP and lateral x-rays of the right hip there is irregularity of the femoral head concerning of avascular necrosis/Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (figures 1 and 2). The patient is afebrile on exam and he walks with a noticeable limp favoring the right side. He has moderate pain with hip flexion and rotation. What is the next best step in treatment?

    Correct

    Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is caused by a loss of blood flow to the femoral head in a skeletally immature patient with 4-8 years of age being the most common ages of presentation. The condition typically follows a predictable radiographic course of bone necrosis, bone resorption, and reossification.  Reossification is typically evident 6 months from onset of symptoms. Radiographs are the preferred imaging modality to diagnose, stage, a follow Perthes. Serial radiographs follow the sphericity of the femoral head and stability of the hip joint. Collapse of the lateral femoral head represents an unstable pattern that can cause hip instability. Age is also a predictor of outcome with the diagnosis made before the age of 6 years of age offering a better prognosis. Serial radiographs should be taken every 3-4 months until reossification to follow femoral head changes, with the ultimate goal of preventing premature hip arthritis. Patients who present <6 years of age can be treated with observation with weight bearing as tolerated and activity restrictions if the hip is symptomatic. Patients who present at age >6-8 years of age with significant femoral head collapse may require bracing, nonweight bearing and/or surgical fixation. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Laine JC, Martin BD, Novotny SA, Kelly DM. Role of advanced imaging in the diagnosis and management of active Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2018 Aug 1;26(15):526-36.
    2. Kim, Harry K. W. MD. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon 18(11):p 676-686, November 2010.
    Incorrect

    Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is caused by a loss of blood flow to the femoral head in a skeletally immature patient with 4-8 years of age being the most common ages of presentation. The condition typically follows a predictable radiographic course of bone necrosis, bone resorption, and reossification.  Reossification is typically evident 6 months from onset of symptoms. Radiographs are the preferred imaging modality to diagnose, stage, a follow Perthes. Serial radiographs follow the sphericity of the femoral head and stability of the hip joint. Collapse of the lateral femoral head represents an unstable pattern that can cause hip instability. Age is also a predictor of outcome with the diagnosis made before the age of 6 years of age offering a better prognosis. Serial radiographs should be taken every 3-4 months until reossification to follow femoral head changes, with the ultimate goal of preventing premature hip arthritis. Patients who present <6 years of age can be treated with observation with weight bearing as tolerated and activity restrictions if the hip is symptomatic. Patients who present at age >6-8 years of age with significant femoral head collapse may require bracing, nonweight bearing and/or surgical fixation. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Laine JC, Martin BD, Novotny SA, Kelly DM. Role of advanced imaging in the diagnosis and management of active Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. JAAOS-Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. 2018 Aug 1;26(15):526-36.
    2. Kim, Harry K. W. MD. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon 18(11):p 676-686, November 2010.
  81. Question 81 of 86
    81. Question

    A 15 year old boy presents to your office with right wrist pain for four weeks. He had a fall 4 weeks ago and an x-ray of the scaphoid was taken and read as negative. He was diagnosed with a wrist sprain and advised to return to activities as tolerated. In retrospect, a nondisplaced fracture of the scaphoid waist was missed (figure 1). He returned to activities including sports but continued to have wrist pain. He returned four weeks after the injury and a repeat x-ray of the scaphoid (figure 2) shows increased displacement of the fracture with cyst formation. On physical exam he has pain over the scaphoid and weak grip strength. What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    Scaphoid fracture is a common injury but can be missed on original x-rays in up to 15% of cases. A common treatment plan with an occult scaphoid fracture and negative x-rays includes a thumb spica cast or brace with follow x-rays in 2 weeks. Continued pain on follow-up exam, or changes on x-ray, will help confirm the diagnosis. CT or MRI can diagnose early occult fractures but cost can prohibit their use in early cases. Between the two, MRI is more sensitive over CT for scaphoid fractures and generally the preferred option. In adults who present with occult fractures, MRI may be more cost effective than immobilization alone due to lost work wages with restrictions. Occult scaphoid fractures that are missed can lead to higher nonunion rates and potential disability. Cast treatment can still be an effective treatment option when scaphoid fractures are missed. Grewal et al found a 96% healing rate with cast treatment when the diagnosis of a nondisplaced scaphoid fracture was delayed past 6 weeks. Generally these fractures can take 10-12 weeks to unite with cast treatment. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Karl JW, Swart RJ. Diagnosis of Occult Scaphoid Fractures. A Cost-Effectiveness Analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 97(22):1860-1868 | Scientific Articles | November 18, 2015
    2. Grewal R, Suh N, MacDermid JC. The missed scaphoid fracture–outcomes of delayed cast treatment. Journal of Wrist Surgery. 2015 Nov;4(04):278-83.
    Incorrect

    Scaphoid fracture is a common injury but can be missed on original x-rays in up to 15% of cases. A common treatment plan with an occult scaphoid fracture and negative x-rays includes a thumb spica cast or brace with follow x-rays in 2 weeks. Continued pain on follow-up exam, or changes on x-ray, will help confirm the diagnosis. CT or MRI can diagnose early occult fractures but cost can prohibit their use in early cases. Between the two, MRI is more sensitive over CT for scaphoid fractures and generally the preferred option. In adults who present with occult fractures, MRI may be more cost effective than immobilization alone due to lost work wages with restrictions. Occult scaphoid fractures that are missed can lead to higher nonunion rates and potential disability. Cast treatment can still be an effective treatment option when scaphoid fractures are missed. Grewal et al found a 96% healing rate with cast treatment when the diagnosis of a nondisplaced scaphoid fracture was delayed past 6 weeks. Generally these fractures can take 10-12 weeks to unite with cast treatment. 1,2

    Answer B.

     

    References

    1. Karl JW, Swart RJ. Diagnosis of Occult Scaphoid Fractures. A Cost-Effectiveness Analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 97(22):1860-1868 | Scientific Articles | November 18, 2015
    2. Grewal R, Suh N, MacDermid JC. The missed scaphoid fracture–outcomes of delayed cast treatment. Journal of Wrist Surgery. 2015 Nov;4(04):278-83.
  82. Question 82 of 86
    82. Question

    A 34 year old women presents to your office with pain and swelling in her middle finger for 3 days. She was walking her dog when she fell awkwardly on her hand. AP and lateral xrays (figures 1 and 2) of the middle finger show a base of the middle phalanx fracture with subtle dorsal subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP joint). On physical exam she has pain over the PIP joint of the middle finger and difficulty with any type of middle finger flexion. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    Phalanx fractures are the most common hand fractures and are frequently seen in the urgent care, emergency room, and orthopedic settings. Most of the fractures can be treated with short term immobilization (1-2 weeks) with an alumafoam and fiberglass splint followed by early range of motion. It is critical for close follow-up and repeat xrays of these fractures, however, as these fractures can displace, become unstable, and fingers can get stiff quickly. Unstable fractures include displaced intra-articular fractures, fracture dislocations, and fractures causing finger rotation or shortening. Fractures of the volar plate causing joint subluxation (this patient’s fracture pattern) can be treated initially with a closed reduction and dorsal extension block splinting. Extension block splinting doesn’t allow the PIP joint to fully extend which would cause further subluxation but allows for PIP flexion so the joint doesn’t become stiff. If a closed reduction and splinting fails, closed reduction with percutaneous pinning or open reduction and internal fixation is recommended. 1,2

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Carpenter S, Rohde RS. Treatment of phalangeal fractures. Hand Clinics. 2013 Nov 1;29(4):519-34.
    2. Henry, Mark H. MD. Fractures of the Proximal Phalanx and Metacarpals in the Hand: Preferred Methods of Stabilization. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 16(10):p 586-595, October 2008.
    Incorrect

    Phalanx fractures are the most common hand fractures and are frequently seen in the urgent care, emergency room, and orthopedic settings. Most of the fractures can be treated with short term immobilization (1-2 weeks) with an alumafoam and fiberglass splint followed by early range of motion. It is critical for close follow-up and repeat xrays of these fractures, however, as these fractures can displace, become unstable, and fingers can get stiff quickly. Unstable fractures include displaced intra-articular fractures, fracture dislocations, and fractures causing finger rotation or shortening. Fractures of the volar plate causing joint subluxation (this patient’s fracture pattern) can be treated initially with a closed reduction and dorsal extension block splinting. Extension block splinting doesn’t allow the PIP joint to fully extend which would cause further subluxation but allows for PIP flexion so the joint doesn’t become stiff. If a closed reduction and splinting fails, closed reduction with percutaneous pinning or open reduction and internal fixation is recommended. 1,2

    Answer C.

    References

    1. Carpenter S, Rohde RS. Treatment of phalangeal fractures. Hand Clinics. 2013 Nov 1;29(4):519-34.
    2. Henry, Mark H. MD. Fractures of the Proximal Phalanx and Metacarpals in the Hand: Preferred Methods of Stabilization. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 16(10):p 586-595, October 2008.
  83. Question 83 of 86
    83. Question

     

    A 44 year old female presents to your office with right ankle pain after falling down the stairs a few hours earlier.  She had immediate pain and swelling after the injury and hasn’t been able to bear weight on the ankle since. On physical exam she has moderate swelling to the ankle with pain to palpation over the medial and lateral malleolus. AP and lateral xrays are shown in figures 1 and 2. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

    Correct

    A trimalleolar ankle fracture involves 3 critical components of the ankle joint: the lateral, medial and posterior malleolus. Trimalleolar fractures represent just 7% of all ankle fractures and are unstable injuries and prone to displacement. Nonoperative treatment may be attempted in low demand patients with non-displaced fractures. However, in healthy active patients the risk of ankle instability and post traumatic arthritis is too high with non-operative treatment and surgery is recommended. Surgical treatment typically involves open reduction and internal fixation of the lateral malleolus with a plate and screws and percutaneous screw fixation of the medial malleolus fracture. If the posterior malleolus fragment involves >25% of the joint space, open reduction and internal fixation is recommended. This usually involves a posterior surgical approach to the ankle with plate and screw fixation. This patient’s posterior malleolus fragment is small, or involving approximately 5% of the joint space, so it doesn’t need to be fixed. The medial and lateral malleolus are displaced and should be fixed. 1,2

     

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Stead TS, Pomerantz LH, Ganti L, Leon L, Elbadri S. Acute Management of Trimalleolar Fracture. Cureus. 2021 Jan 6;13(1):e12536. doi: 10.7759/cureus.12536.
    2. Hong CC, Nashi N, Roy SP, Tan KJ. Impact of trimalleolar ankle fractures: how do patients fare post-operatively?. Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2014 Mar 1;20(1):48-51.
    Incorrect

    A trimalleolar ankle fracture involves 3 critical components of the ankle joint: the lateral, medial and posterior malleolus. Trimalleolar fractures represent just 7% of all ankle fractures and are unstable injuries and prone to displacement. Nonoperative treatment may be attempted in low demand patients with non-displaced fractures. However, in healthy active patients the risk of ankle instability and post traumatic arthritis is too high with non-operative treatment and surgery is recommended. Surgical treatment typically involves open reduction and internal fixation of the lateral malleolus with a plate and screws and percutaneous screw fixation of the medial malleolus fracture. If the posterior malleolus fragment involves >25% of the joint space, open reduction and internal fixation is recommended. This usually involves a posterior surgical approach to the ankle with plate and screw fixation. This patient’s posterior malleolus fragment is small, or involving approximately 5% of the joint space, so it doesn’t need to be fixed. The medial and lateral malleolus are displaced and should be fixed. 1,2

     

    Answer C.

     

    References

    1. Stead TS, Pomerantz LH, Ganti L, Leon L, Elbadri S. Acute Management of Trimalleolar Fracture. Cureus. 2021 Jan 6;13(1):e12536. doi: 10.7759/cureus.12536.
    2. Hong CC, Nashi N, Roy SP, Tan KJ. Impact of trimalleolar ankle fractures: how do patients fare post-operatively?. Foot and Ankle Surgery. 2014 Mar 1;20(1):48-51.
  84. Question 84 of 86
    84. Question

     

    A 50 year old construction worker presents to your office with 2 months of left shoulder pain and weakness. He has noticed weakness when holding tools overhead with his left arm. Two weeks ago he had a subacromial injection in the left shoulder which failed to provide relief. MRI of the left shoulder shows a posterior superior labral tear with adjacent paralabral cyst extending into the suprascapular notch with mild infraspinatus denervation changes suggesting suprascapular nerve impingement (figures 1 and 2).  What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

     

    The suprascapular nerve arises from the brachial plexus and travels along the posterior superior scapular and through the suprascapular notch where it then begins to innervate the rotator cuff muscles. The nerve can be injured with repetitive overhead motion (volleyball, tennis, and baseball pitchers in particular) and by space occupying lesions (generally from a large paralabral cyst that arises from a labral tear). Symptoms often include pain and weakness with shoulder abduction and external rotation as the nerve supply to the rotator cuff is impaired. Physical exam findings will typically show weakness to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. MRI is the study of choice to determine if there is a rotator cuff tear, mass occupying lesion, or other soft tissue pathology. Initial treatment involves activity modification (avoidance of overhead activities), anti-inflammatories, and physical therapy to focus on scapular stabilization and shoulder mechanics. Paralabral cysts formed from labral tears are generally treated with arthroscopic decompression and labral repair or debridement. The labral tear is a known cause of inflammation and cyst formation, and without debridement or repair, the cyst is unlikely to go away. Aspiration of the cyst alone has a high recurrence rate as this doesn’t address the cause of the cyst. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Boykin RE, Friedman DJ, Higgins LD, Warner JP. Current Concepts Review: Suprascapular Neuropathy. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 92(13):2348-2364
    2. Strauss, Eric J. MD; Kingery, Matthew T. MD; Klein, David DO; Manjunath, Amit K. MD. The Evaluation and Management of Suprascapular Neuropathy. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(15):p 617-627, August 1, 2020. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-19-00526
    Incorrect

     

    The suprascapular nerve arises from the brachial plexus and travels along the posterior superior scapular and through the suprascapular notch where it then begins to innervate the rotator cuff muscles. The nerve can be injured with repetitive overhead motion (volleyball, tennis, and baseball pitchers in particular) and by space occupying lesions (generally from a large paralabral cyst that arises from a labral tear). Symptoms often include pain and weakness with shoulder abduction and external rotation as the nerve supply to the rotator cuff is impaired. Physical exam findings will typically show weakness to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. MRI is the study of choice to determine if there is a rotator cuff tear, mass occupying lesion, or other soft tissue pathology. Initial treatment involves activity modification (avoidance of overhead activities), anti-inflammatories, and physical therapy to focus on scapular stabilization and shoulder mechanics. Paralabral cysts formed from labral tears are generally treated with arthroscopic decompression and labral repair or debridement. The labral tear is a known cause of inflammation and cyst formation, and without debridement or repair, the cyst is unlikely to go away. Aspiration of the cyst alone has a high recurrence rate as this doesn’t address the cause of the cyst. 1,2

    Answer D.

     

    References

    1. Boykin RE, Friedman DJ, Higgins LD, Warner JP. Current Concepts Review: Suprascapular Neuropathy. J Bone Joint Surg Am, 92(13):2348-2364
    2. Strauss, Eric J. MD; Kingery, Matthew T. MD; Klein, David DO; Manjunath, Amit K. MD. The Evaluation and Management of Suprascapular Neuropathy. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 28(15):p 617-627, August 1, 2020. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-19-00526
  85. Question 85 of 86
    85. Question

    A 31 year old male presents to your office with left ankle pain for 2 days. He was working in his yard when his ankle slipped off a rock and twisted. He had immediate pain and has been unable to bear weight on the ankle since. AP and lateral xrays show a subtle fracture of the medial talar dome (Figures 1 and 2). CT of the talus shows a osteochondral fracture of the lateral talar dome with a 1.1 by 1.3 cm osseous fragment (Figures 3 and 4). What is the best treatment option?

    Correct

    An osteochondral fracture of the talus involves the articular cartilage and subchondral bone. The injury occurs when the lateral talar dome compresses on the adjacent tibia when the ankle is in dorsiflexion and inversion (typically ankle sprain mechanism). CT scan is often used when a fracture is identified on xray to determine the size and displacement of the subchondral bone. MRI is often used when xrays are normal and patients continue to have persistent ankle pain. This patients osteochondral fracture appears to be a complete nondisplaced fragment on CT. Initial treatment typically involves 6 weeks of non-weight bearing in an immobilizer or short leg cast. Acute osteochondral fractures often heal slow and can take patients up to 12-16 weeks to regain full mobility. Osteochondral fractures are prone to not healing as 45% of nondisplaced complete fractures will fail nonsurgical treatment. In general, non-displaced osteochondral fractures are managed non-operatively for up to a year before surgery is considered. Surgery is considered for patients with higher-grade lesions, patients not responding to non-operative management, displaced lesions, or loose bodies. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. McGahan PJ, Pinney SJ. Current concept review: osteochondral lesions of the talus. Foot & ankle international. 2010 Jan;31(1):90-101.
    2. Schachter, Aaron K. MD; Chen, Andrew L. MD, MS; Reddy, Ponnavolu D. MD; Tejwani, Nirmal C. MD. Osteochondral Lesions of the Talus. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(3):p 152-158, May 2005.
    Incorrect

    An osteochondral fracture of the talus involves the articular cartilage and subchondral bone. The injury occurs when the lateral talar dome compresses on the adjacent tibia when the ankle is in dorsiflexion and inversion (typically ankle sprain mechanism). CT scan is often used when a fracture is identified on xray to determine the size and displacement of the subchondral bone. MRI is often used when xrays are normal and patients continue to have persistent ankle pain. This patients osteochondral fracture appears to be a complete nondisplaced fragment on CT. Initial treatment typically involves 6 weeks of non-weight bearing in an immobilizer or short leg cast. Acute osteochondral fractures often heal slow and can take patients up to 12-16 weeks to regain full mobility. Osteochondral fractures are prone to not healing as 45% of nondisplaced complete fractures will fail nonsurgical treatment. In general, non-displaced osteochondral fractures are managed non-operatively for up to a year before surgery is considered. Surgery is considered for patients with higher-grade lesions, patients not responding to non-operative management, displaced lesions, or loose bodies. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. McGahan PJ, Pinney SJ. Current concept review: osteochondral lesions of the talus. Foot & ankle international. 2010 Jan;31(1):90-101.
    2. Schachter, Aaron K. MD; Chen, Andrew L. MD, MS; Reddy, Ponnavolu D. MD; Tejwani, Nirmal C. MD. Osteochondral Lesions of the Talus. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 13(3):p 152-158, May 2005.
  86. Question 86 of 86
    86. Question

    A 42 year old female presents to your office with a 3 day history of right elbow pain. She denies any injury or precipitating event. She works at a desk for most of the day and denies any repetitive contact to the elbow. On exam she has severe tenderness to palpation of the triceps insertion on the olecranon. On physical exam there is a palpable firm “rice shaped” mass that seems to be located within the triceps tendon.  There is no evidence of olecranon bursitis or infection. Lateral xray of the elbow shows calcific tendinits of the triceps tendon at its insertion (figure 1). The patient denies any current medical problems and does not take any prescription medications. She takes 1,200 mg of calcium in her daily vitamin supplement. The patient asks why her body would put calcium in the tendon. What is the most likely explanation?

    Correct

    Calcific tendonitis is a common condition in which the body deposits calcium hydroxyapatite crystals within tendons. The condition is slightly more common in women and the condition generally occurs in patients between 30 and 60 years of age. Calcific tendonitis can occur in any tendon insertion in the body but the shoulder and hips are the most common sites. The presentation includes a rapid onset of severe pain in a tendon insertion in the absence of trauma of precipitation event. In many cases calcific tendonitis can be found on xray incidentally in asymptomatic patients while others may have severe pain. The natural course of the condition is calcium deposition followed by spontaneous resorption and improvement of clinical symptoms. Calcific tendonitis is often painful during the resorptive phase when the calcium appears cloudy on xray. The pathogenesis of calcific tendonitis remains unclear without any one theory widely accepted. Treatment is first conservative with a period of rest, NSAIDS, and gentle range of motion exercises to preserve joint motion. Symptoms often resolve in 2-3 months as the calcium deposit is slowly absorbed.  If conservative treatments fail other treatments such as extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, needle aspiration and steroid injection, and surgery are options. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Siegal DS, Wu JS, Newman JS, Del Cura JL, Hochman MG. Calcific tendinitis: a pictorial review. Canadian Association of Radiologists Journal. 2009 Dec;60(5):263-72.
    2. Nikci, Valdet MD; Doumas, Christopher MD. Calcium Deposits in the Hand and Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 23(2):p 87-94, February 2015. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-14-00001
    Incorrect

    Calcific tendonitis is a common condition in which the body deposits calcium hydroxyapatite crystals within tendons. The condition is slightly more common in women and the condition generally occurs in patients between 30 and 60 years of age. Calcific tendonitis can occur in any tendon insertion in the body but the shoulder and hips are the most common sites. The presentation includes a rapid onset of severe pain in a tendon insertion in the absence of trauma of precipitation event. In many cases calcific tendonitis can be found on xray incidentally in asymptomatic patients while others may have severe pain. The natural course of the condition is calcium deposition followed by spontaneous resorption and improvement of clinical symptoms. Calcific tendonitis is often painful during the resorptive phase when the calcium appears cloudy on xray. The pathogenesis of calcific tendonitis remains unclear without any one theory widely accepted. Treatment is first conservative with a period of rest, NSAIDS, and gentle range of motion exercises to preserve joint motion. Symptoms often resolve in 2-3 months as the calcium deposit is slowly absorbed.  If conservative treatments fail other treatments such as extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, needle aspiration and steroid injection, and surgery are options. 1,2

    Answer A.

    References

    1. Siegal DS, Wu JS, Newman JS, Del Cura JL, Hochman MG. Calcific tendinitis: a pictorial review. Canadian Association of Radiologists Journal. 2009 Dec;60(5):263-72.
    2. Nikci, Valdet MD; Doumas, Christopher MD. Calcium Deposits in the Hand and Wrist. Journal of the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons 23(2):p 87-94, February 2015. | DOI: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-14-00001
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